Let $B$ be a continuous random variable. Let $H$ be an event.
- Am I right to think it does not necessarily make sense to say '$P(H)=\int_{b \in \mathbb R}P(H|B=b)f_B(b)$'?
My guess: Well based on Wiki, I think yes, i.e. we cannot do this for just any $H$ because $P(H|B=b)$ need not be defined. Furthermore, even if we somehow define $P(H|B=b)$, I think we'll still have to think about defining the integral $\int_{b \in \mathbb R}P(H|B=b)f_B(b)$, depending on the definition of $P(H|B=b)$.
Is '$P(H|B=b)$' well-defined if $H=\{Y \in U\}$ for any continuous random variable $Y$ s.t. $Y$ and $B$ have a continuous joint pdf and for any interval $U$? (I forgot if any 2 continuous random variables necessarily have a well-defined joint pdf. Also, I'm trying not think of $U$ as an arbitrary Borel set.)
With the same conditions as in (2) and assuming the answer to (2) is affirmative, does it necessarily make sense to say $P(H)=\int_{b \in \mathbb R}P(H|B=b)f_B(b)$, and is such equation correct?
My guess: I believe it makes sense and then is correct: Pretend $U=(1,7)$. Then: $LHS = P(H)=\int_1^7 f_Y(y) dy$. $RHS= \int_{b \in \mathbb R}P(Y \in (1,7)|B=b)f_B(b) db = \int_{b \in \mathbb R} \int_1^7 f_{Y|B=b}(y) f_B(b) dy db = \int_{b \in \mathbb R} \int_1^7 f_{Y,B}(y,b) dy db$
Then pretend I know what Fubini's theorem is to get
$= \int_1^7 \int_{b \in \mathbb R} f_{Y,B}(y,b) db dy$
$= \int_1^7 f_{Y}(y) dy$
- Re Fubini's theorem, is there a way to argue this at an elementary probability level?