Here is Prob. 23, Chap. 2, in the book Real Analysis by H.L. Royden and P.M. Fitzpatrick, 4th edition:
For any set $A$, define $m^{***}(A) \in [0, \infty]$ by $$ m^{***}(A) = \sup \left\{ m^*(F) \, | \, F \subseteq A, F \mbox{ closed} \right\}. $$ How is this set function $m^{***}$ related to $m^*$?
My Attempt:
If $F$ is any (closed) set such that $F \subseteq A$, then by the monotonicity of the outer measure, we must have $m^*(F) \leq m^*(A)$, and thus $m^*(A)$ is an upper bound for the set $$ \left\{ m^*(F) \, | \, F \subseteq A, F \mbox{ closed} \right\}. \tag{1} $$ Therefore we must have $$ m^{***}(A) \leq m^*(A). \tag{2} $$
How to establish the reverse inequality?
Here our set can either be measurable or not, and also either $m^*(A) = \infty$ or $m^*(A) < \infty$.
How to show in each one of the above four cases that $$ m^*(A) \leq m^{***}(A)? $$
PS:
Here is my attempted proof of the reverse inequality of (2) above.
If $m^{***}(A) = \infty$, then we trivially have $m^*(A) \leq m^{***}(A)$. So let us assume that $m^{***}(A) < \infty$. Then, for any closed set $F$ such that $F \subseteq A$, we must have $m^*(F) \leq m^{***}(A) < \infty$. Thus we have $m^*(F) < \infty$ for any closed set $F$ contained in $A$.
If $A$ is measurable, then by Theorem 11 (iii), Chap. 2, in Royden, for any real number $\epsilon > 0$, there exists a closed set $F_\epsilon$ contained in $A$ for which $$ m^* \left( A \setminus F_\epsilon \right) < \epsilon. \tag{3} $$ But as $F_\epsilon$ is a closed set, so $F_\epsilon$ is measurable, and as $F_\epsilon \subseteq A$, so we also have $m^*\left( F_\epsilon \right) < \infty$. Therefore (3) together with the excision property yields $$ m^*(A) - m^* \left( F_\epsilon \right) = m^* \left( A \setminus F_\epsilon \right) < \epsilon, $$ which implies
$$ m^*(A) < m^* \left( F_\epsilon \right) + \epsilon \leq m^{***}(A) + \epsilon, $$ which in turn implies $$ m^*(A) \leq m^{***}(A) + \epsilon $$ for any real number $\epsilon > 0$, and therefore we can conclude that $$ m^*(A) \leq m^{***}(A). \tag{4} $$
If $A$ is not measurable, then by Prob. Prob. 17, Chap. 2, in Royden, there exists a real number $\epsilon_0 > 0$ such that, for any open set $O$ and for any closed set $F$ such that $F \subseteq A \subset O$, we have $$ m^*(O \setminus F ) \geq \epsilon_0. \tag{5} $$ But any closed set is measurable, and in particular any closed set $F$ contained in $A$ is measurable with finite outer measure; we therefore have $$ m^*(O \setminus F) = m^*(O) - m^*(F), $$ by the excision property, and the last identity together with (5) gives $$ m^*(O) - m*(F) \geq \epsilon_0, $$ and thus we have $$ m^*(O) \geq m^*(F) + \epsilon_0. \tag{5} $$
What next? How to proceed from here and prove that (4) above holds in the case when $A$ is not measurable?