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I was wondering if the in the title mentioned statement is true or false? I thought I read about it but I'm not sure if it's true and provable or not.

So if we have $V$ a K-vector space and $U \subset V$ a subspace. We take $\phi$: $U \to V$ as the obvious inclusion map. Is the transpose map $\phi^T: V^* \to U^*$ surjective?

23408924
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Recall that $\phi^T = \psi \circ \phi$ for $\psi \in V^*$. Unraveling this definition, how can we describe $\phi^T(\psi)$?

inhyak
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