For the inverse of the factorial function, @Gary proposed in year $2013$ a superb approximation (have a look here)
$$x!= y \quad \implies \quad x \sim \frac{{\log \left( {\frac{y}{{\sqrt {2\pi } }}} \right)}}{{W\left( {\frac{1}{e}\log \left( {\frac{y}{{\sqrt {2\pi } }}} \right)} \right)}} - \frac{1}{2}\tag 1$$ where $W(.)$ is Lambert function.
If you want to make a less good approximation by yourself, start taking the logarithms of both sides and use Stirling approximation. This gives
$$\log(y)=x (\log (x)-1)+\frac{1}{2} \log (2 \pi )+\frac{1}{2} \log ( x)+O\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)$$ Ignoring the last term
$$\log(y)=x (\log (x)-1)+\frac{1}{2} \log (2 \pi )\implies x= \frac{{\log \left( {\frac{y}{{\sqrt {2\pi } }}} \right)}}{{W\left( {\frac{1}{e}\log \left( {\frac{y}{{\sqrt {2\pi } }}} \right)} \right)}}\tag 2$$
Using for example $y=120$, $(1)$ would give $x=4.99556$ while $(2)$ would give $x=5.49556$, while, as you know, the exact solution is $5$.