In A family has two children. One child is a girl. What is the probability that the other child is a boy?, the question was
A family has two children. One child is a girl. What is the probability that the other child is a boy?
it was shown that the probability of the other child being a boy given that you know one child is a girl is $2/3$.
In another variant of this problem, the question was
I tell you that I have two children and that one of them is a girl (I say nothing about the other). You knock on my front door and you are greeted by a girl who you correctly deduce to be my daughter. What is the probability that I have two girls? Compare and contrast your answer to the answer to the previous question. Assume that boys and girls are equally likely to be born and that the gender of one child is independent of gender of another.
Apparently, the answer to this question is 0.5, but how is this any different from the previous problem? It seems like the same problem except we're asking what the probability of the second child being a girl is given that the first child is a girl rather than asking about the probability of the second child being a boy given that the first child is a girl. So shouldn't the answer just be $1/3$, the complement of the first question?
This is the solution to the second problem that I saw in the book:
I'm skeptical about the part of the solution where it says ". Having pinpointed the gender of Child #1 (we might as well call her that), however, the latter two outcomes are excluded." Getting rid of BG seems to rely on that you see the children in the order that they're listed, so if it's BG, it would have to be a boy that greets you at the door. But nothing in the problem suggests this, so I don't think this solution is accurate.
