Per the question here: Prove that $E([c-U]) = c-1$, it was proven that:
$$E(\lfloor c-U\rfloor) = c-1$$
if $U$ is a uniform random number between $0$ and $1$. I have some reason to suspect that this only holds for this particular distribution of $U$. I tried looking for counter-examples to this conjecture (considering the Beta distribution and some bimodal distributions) and couldn't find any. Is there a way to either prove this conjecture or disprove it via a counter-example?
The random variable, $U$ shouldn't depend on $c$ and the result should hold for all $c \in \mathbb R$.