sorry for my bad English.
I am reading Mumford's "Abelian Variety", and in this book he defined hyperalgebra $\mathbb{H}$ in p98, as follows.
Let $k$ be algebraic closed field, and $G$ be group scheme of finite type over $k$.
And for closed point $x\in G$, $\mathbb{H}_x:=Hom_{cont}(\mathscr{O}_{x,G}, k)$ where cont means the maps $L:\mathscr{O}_{x,G}\to k$ which are continuous in the sense that $L({\frak m}^{N+1})=0$ for some $N$.
Then, $\mathbb{H}:=\oplus_{x\in G} \mathbb{H}_x$.
On the other hand, he said $\mathbb{H}$ is equal to $\varinjlim Hom_k(\Gamma(Z,\mathscr{O}_Z),k)$ where $Z$ runs 0-dim subschema of $G$.
But I don't understand this correspond.
I think if $L\in \mathbb{H}_x$, we take $Z:=Spec(\mathscr{O}_x/{\frak m}^{N+1})$. But I don't know this $Z$ is truely subscheme (i.e. locally closed as topological space).
Please tell me concrete correspond, thanks.