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The question is as follows:

If $\{a_n\}$ is a convergent sequence of real numbers, then $\lim_{n \to \infty} n(a_{n+1} - a_n) =0 $.

I have been thinking about this question since yesterday but I am unable to prove it. $a_{n+1} - a_n \rightarrow 0$ if $\{a_n\}$ is convergent, but there is also a term of $n$ which is creating trouble for me. I verified this with examples like $a_n = 1/n$ and $a_n =1$ but can't get any idea on how to prove it. Please help me, any idea will be appreciated.

P-addict
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  • @Gary Can you repost the link to the question you suggested to look at? I would like to have a second look at it and I am unable to search for it. Thanks – P-addict Jun 22 '21 at 08:13
  • See https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2509422/convergent-sequence-and-lim-limitsn-to-inftyna-n1-a-n-0?rq=1 – Gary Jun 24 '21 at 06:50

1 Answers1

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This is false. Take $a_n= \sum\limits_{k=1}^{n}\frac {(-1)^{k}} {k}$

Joe
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