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Consider the following power series: \begin{align} f(x)=\sum_{s=0}^\infty \sum_{m=0}^{\infty} b_{s,m}x^{2s}(1-x^2)^{m}. \end{align} Suppose that we know that $f(x)=0$ for all $x\in [-1,1]$. My question is, under the above assumption, what can we conclude about the coefficients $b_{s,m}$?

Some Thoughts $f$ can be re-written in terms of a single sum as \begin{align} \sum_{s=0}^\infty \sum_{m=0}^\infty b_{s,m}x^{2s}(1-x^2)^{m}= \sum_{k=0}^\infty a_k x^{2k}. \end{align} The expression for $a_k$ in terms $b_{s,m}$ was found here and is given by \begin{align} a_k =\sum_{s=0}^k \sum_{m \geq (k-s)} b_{s,m} {m \choose (k-s)} (-1)^{k-s} . \end{align}

Since $f(x)=0,x \in [-1,1]$, this implies that $a_k=0$ for all $k$. However, since the mapping between $b_{s,m}$ and $a_k$ is not simple I am not sure what we can conclude about the coefficients $b_{s,m}$ and what $a_k$'s equal zero imply.

Edit 1: As suggest in the comment section, it might be usefull to transform the problem by setting $x=\sin(t)$ in which case we get \begin{align} 0= \sum_{s=0}^\infty \sum_{m=0}^\infty b_{s,m}\sin^{2s}(t)\cos^{2m}(t), \end{align} for all $t\in [-\pi,\pi]$.

Edit 2: If assumptions are needed, then we can assume that $\sum b_{s,m}^2 <\infty$.

Lisa
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  • I don't have time to try myself now, but it seems natural to set $x=\sin \theta$. You might then be able to apply something like the orthogonality relations from fourier theory to extract your coefficients. The usual ones don't work out of the box, though. – preferred_anon Jun 25 '21 at 23:09
  • @preferred_anon Thanks for the idea. I will think about it. Do let me know if you have any other thoughts on this problem. – Lisa Jun 25 '21 at 23:14
  • @preferred_anon I see your point. I will edit the question. – Lisa Jun 25 '21 at 23:31
  • @preferred_anon by the way how did you get $(1-e^{2im \theta})$? I can't reduce $ (1-e^{2i \theta})^m$ to it? – Lisa Jun 25 '21 at 23:36
  • @Lucy Sorry, that was a mistake! I'll delete that comment, it's misleading. – preferred_anon Jun 27 '21 at 08:10
  • @preferred_anon no problem. thank you for your help anyway. I started a bounty with this question. Hopefully, someone will contribute. – Lisa Jun 28 '21 at 01:18
  • I think there are too many coefficients so that it ensures the existence of nontrivial solution. $b_{0,0}=1, b_{0,1}=-1, b_{1,0}=-1$ and all other b's being $0$ can be one example. Perhaps your thoughts, $a_k =0$, might be the best condition you can get. – sansae Jun 28 '21 at 02:07
  • @sansae I see what you mean. I feel like there might be some kind of matrix condition. For example, if we put the coefficient in the matrix, then it must satisfy property X. – Lisa Jun 28 '21 at 18:11
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    Deleted my answer as I made an incorrect assumption, but I was going down the road of deriving constraints from the equivalent fact that $f^{(n)}(x) = 0$ for all n-th derivatives, picking one (maybe the same) special value of $x$ for each $n$. – jwimberley Jun 28 '21 at 20:26

2 Answers2

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Here's some work on a Fourier expansion that could maybe lead to some conditions on $b_{s,m}$. Let $f(t) = \sin^{2s}(t) \cos^{2m}(t)$, for a fixed $s$ and $m$ (apologies for the inconsistent notation). First note that there is no sine term in the Fourier transform of $f(t)$ with a non-zero coefficient, since $f(t)$ is an even function and $\sin(nt)$ is an odd function for every integer $n$. So, let its Fourier transform be $$ f(t) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \tilde f_n \cos(nt). $$ Note that $$ \tilde f_n = \frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^\pi \sin^{2s}(t) \cos^{2m}(t) \cos(nt) \, dt = \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_{0}^\pi (1-\cos(2t))^s (1+\cos(2t))^m \cos(nt) \, dt $$ must be 0 for every odd value of $n$. To see this, define $u = 2t-\pi$, and the integral becomes $$ \tilde f_n = \frac{1}{4\pi} \int_{-\pi}^\pi (1+\cos(u))^s (1-\cos(u))^m \cos \left( \frac{nu}{2} + \frac{n\pi}{2} \right) \, du $$ The left term in the integrand is an even function of $u$. When $n$ is odd, the right term is odd, hence making the integral zero. Otherwise, let $n=2k$, making the (even) right term $\cos(ku+k\pi) = (-1)^k \cos(ku)$: $$ \tilde f_{2k} = \frac{(-1)^k}{4\pi} \int_{-\pi}^\pi (1+\cos(u))^s (1-\cos(u))^m \cos(ku) \, du $$ But since the integrand is still even, the same game yields $$ \tilde f_{2k} = \frac{(-1)^k}{4\pi} \int_{-\pi}^\pi \left(1-\sin\left(\frac{v}{2}\right)\right)^s \left(1+\sin\left(\frac{v}{2}\right)\right)^m \cos\left(\frac{kv}{2}+\frac{k\pi}{2}\right) \, dv$$ and thus $$ \tilde f_n = \left\{ \begin{array}{l|l} \frac{(-1)^\ell}{4\pi} \int_{-\pi}^\pi \left(1-\sin\left(\frac{v}{2}\right)\right)^s \left(1+\sin\left(\frac{v}{2}\right)\right)^m \cos\left(\ell v\right) \, dv & n = 4 \ell\\ \frac{(-1)^\ell}{4\pi} \int_{-\pi}^\pi \left(1-\sin\left(\frac{v}{2}\right)\right)^s \left(1+\sin\left(\frac{v}{2}\right)\right)^m \sin\left(\left(\ell+\frac{1}{2}\right)v\right) \, dv & n = 4 \ell + 2 \\ 0 & \textrm{otherwise} \end{array} \right. $$ where $v = 2u-\pi$. Now the left side of the integrand is neither even nor odd, so the game stops here.

Perhaps there is then hope for evaluating each of these cases, even if just through the messy binomial expansion that expresses each as a sum of terms proportional to $$ \int_{-\pi}^\pi \sin\left(\frac{v}{2} \right)^w \cos (\ell v) \, dv = \left\{ \begin{array}{l|l} \frac{(-1)^{\ell}\pi}{2^{w-1}} \binom{w}{w/2-\ell} & \textrm{even } w \\ 0 & \textrm{otherwise} \end{array} \right. $$ (note that the cosine is always an even function while the sine power is only even when its exponent is even) and $$ \int_{-\pi}^\pi \sin\left(\frac{v}{2} \right)^w \sin \left(\left(\ell+\frac{1}{2} \right) v\right) \, dv = \left\{ \begin{array}{l|l} \frac{(-1)^{\ell}\pi}{2^{w-1}} \binom{w}{(w-1)/2-\ell} & \textrm{odd } w \\ 0 & \textrm{otherwise} \end{array} \right. $$ where $w$ is an index in the summation. These integrals were derived using the expansions given in nth power of sine as sum of sine and cosine terms.

Next, using the series expansion $$ (1-S)^s (1+s)^m = \sum_{a=0}^s \sum_{b=0}^m (-1)^a \binom{s}{a} \binom{m}{b} S^{a+b} $$ we arrive finally at $$ \tilde f_n = \left\{ \begin{array}{l|l} \sum_{a=0}^s \sum_{b=0}^m I(a+b \textrm{ even}) \, \frac{(-1)^a}{2^{a+b+1}} \binom{s}{a} \binom{m}{b} \binom{a+b}{(a+b)/2-\ell} & n = 4 \ell\\ \sum_{a=0}^s \sum_{b=0}^m I(a+b \textrm{ odd}) \, \frac{(-1)^a}{2^{a+b+1}} \binom{s}{a} \binom{m}{b} \binom{a+b}{(a+b-1)/2-\ell} & n = 4 \ell + 2 \\ 0 & \textrm{otherwise} \end{array} \right. $$

Since the function in the question was a sum of my $f(t)$ over all non-negative values of $s$ and $m$ with the coefficients $b_{s,m}$, and is identically zero, the above Fourier coefficients could in principle lead to some restrictions on $b_{s,m}$. However, they might be rather messy, unless there is some magical cancellation of some of the binomial and power-of-two coefficients. Rearranging summations, one class of these restrictions would be, for arbitrary $\ell$, $$ 0 = \sum_{a=0}^\infty \sum_{b=0}^\infty I(a+b \textrm{ even}) \, \frac{(-1)^a}{2^{a+b+1}} \binom{a+b}{(a+b)/2-\ell} \, \left( \sum_{s=a}^\infty \sum_{m=b}^\infty b_{s,m} \binom{s}{a} \binom{m}{b} \right) $$

  • Thanks. What does $I(a+b \text{even})$ stand for? – Lisa Jun 30 '21 at 13:13
  • That's an indicator function -- 1 if a + b is even, 0 otherwise. I would normally put that condition as a subscript for a summation symbol describing the range of a and b, but it didn't format well. – jwimberley Jun 30 '21 at 13:41
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Let $\;y=x^2,\;$ then from the identity $$g(y)=\sum\limits_{s=0}^\infty\,\sum\limits_{m=0}^\infty\,b_{s,m}y^s(1-y)^m=f(x)=0,$$ should $$g^{(n)}(0)=g^{(n)}(1)=0,\qquad(n=0,1,2\dots)$$ or \begin{cases} \sum\limits_{m=0}^\infty\,b_{0,m} = \sum\limits_{s=0}^\infty\,b_{s,0} = 0\\[4pt] \sum\limits_{m=0}^\infty\,(-m\,b_{0,m}+s\,b_{1,m}) = \sum\limits_{s=0}^\infty\,(s\,b_{s,0}-mb_{s,1}) = 0\\[4pt] \sum\limits_{m=0}^\infty\,(m(m-1)b_{0,m}-sm\,b_{1,m}+s(s-1)\,b_{2,m}) \\[4pt] = \sum\limits_{s=0}^\infty\,(s(s-1)b_{s,0}-sm\,b_{s,1}+m(m-1)\,b_{s,2}) = 0\\[4pt] \dots\\[4pt] \sum\limits_{m=0}^\infty\,\sum\limits_{k=0}^n (-1)^k (m-k+1)_{(k)}(s-n+k-1)_{(n-k)} b_{k,m}\\[4pt] = \sum\limits_{s=0}^\infty\,\sum\limits_{k=0}^n (-1)^k (m-k+1)_{(k)} (s-n+k-1)_{(n-k)} b_{s,n-k} = 0\\[4pt] \dots, \end{cases} where $\;a_{(p)} = a(a+1)\dots(a+p-1)\;$ is the Pochhammer symbol.

  • Thank you for your answer. Do you have feel for what these equations imply about $b_{s,k}$? – Lisa Jun 30 '21 at 13:06
  • @Lisa Thank you for your comment. I feel that these equations are the maximum of possible. And I feel that the indefinity holds. – Yuri Negometyanov Jun 30 '21 at 13:47
  • when you say the maximum possible, do you mean that these are equivalent? – Lisa Jun 30 '21 at 14:05
  • @Lisa At the same time, we can do the substitutions $t=qu,;q\in(0,1).$ This leads to a homogenious linear system with sufficient rank and allows to prove zero coefficients. – Yuri Negometyanov Jun 30 '21 at 14:05
  • Regarding your last comment. Can you explain a bit more? Do you mean that we can show that $b_{s,k}$ are zero? – Lisa Jun 30 '21 at 14:07
  • @Lisa Since we can choose the arbitrary $q;$ instead $1,$ we can prove zero for the arbitrary finite size of the coefficients' grid. And the situation "continuum vs countable set" makes possible limiting transition. – Yuri Negometyanov Jun 30 '21 at 14:26
  • Yuri, could you put this in your answer? I would really appreciate it. – Lisa Jun 30 '21 at 15:35