I noticed that when $f'(x)$ tends to $+\infty$ as $x$ tends to $+\infty$, then $f(x)$ must tend to $+\infty$ as $x$ tends to $+\infty$ as well. I'm stuck at the proof though.
If you implement the mean value theorem for $f(x)$ in $(x,x+1)$ you'll get:
$f(x+1) - f(x)= f'(b)$ where $b>x$
now if u take limits for $x\rightarrow+\infty$, b must tend to $+\infty$ as well. So, $\lim_{x\to\infty}$ $f(x+1) - f(x)$ = $+\infty$, as $x$ tends to $+\infty$
Also, $f(x)$ must be increasing as $x$ tends to $+\infty$. Can somebody continue this or show me another way of proving this?