According to Hartshorne's "Algebraic Geometry", we say that a topological space $X$ is a Zariski space if it is noetherian (i.e. $X$ satisfies the descending chain condition for closed subsets) and every nonempty closed irreducible subset has a unique generic point (Exercise II.3.17.). In this exercise, we show that the underlying topological space of a noetherian scheme is a Zariski space and here arises a question: conversely, every Zariski space occurs as an underlying topological space of some scheme?
I know that if we remove the Zariski assumption and require only to be noetherian, this assertion does not hold, because, for example, $X=\{x,y\}$ with indiscrete topology gives an counterexample. Indeed, this space is obviously noetherian but never appears as an underlying space of scheme because $X$ has no closed points. However, when $X$ is a Zariski space, I can neither find a counterexample nor prove this statement.
Thank you!