Give an example showing that if $\mathcal{F}_1 \subset \mathcal{F}_2 \subset \cdots$ are $\sigma$-algebras then $\cup_i \mathcal{F}_i$ is not necessarily a $\sigma$-algebra.
$\cup_i \mathcal{F}_i$ is an algebra, just not necessarily a $\sigma$-algebra.
This means that any finite union of elements from the $\mathcal{F}_i$ should exist in $\cup_i \mathcal{F}_i$, but a countably infinite union of elements in any $\mathcal{F}_i$ may not necessarily exist in $\cup_i \mathcal{F}_i$. I'm having trouble thinking of such a counter example scenario.