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$$\frac{(a_1)^2+(a_2)^2+\cdots+(a_n)^2}{n}\ge \left(\frac{a_1+a_2+a_3+\cdots+a_n}{n}\right)^2 $$ given that $(a_1), (a_2), \ldots, (a_n)$ are positive real numbers

I tried to prove this using AM GM but no luck there, so I tried to assume a function (then using derivative analysis hoping something happen but nothing).

Can anyone give me a hint????

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  • This is the AM-RMS inequality, which I tried to find a duplicate for (and I urge others to do so as well). A proof via Cauchy-Schwarz is here. If only $AM-GM$ is permissible, consider this post to convert the CS argument into an AM-GM argument. – Sarvesh Ravichandran Iyer Sep 13 '21 at 06:44
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    this has been asked so many many times!! please search before asking ...... – Albus Dumbledore Sep 13 '21 at 06:44
  • Also: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/536930/42969, https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1498319/42969. – Martin R Sep 13 '21 at 06:54
  • @TeresaLisbon: This is indeed a multiple duplicate – and I wonder why the top answerer in the [inequality] tag does not recognize that :( – Martin R Sep 13 '21 at 06:59
  • @Teresa Lisbon Thankyou so much!!!!!! – Damstridium Sep 13 '21 at 07:00
  • @RadacRor Welcome! Please use Approach0 and SearchOnMath to search for mathematical expressions on Math Stackexchange. Doing this will ensure that you don't need to post and wait for answers, they are already here and you can make use of them. – Sarvesh Ravichandran Iyer Sep 13 '21 at 07:01
  • @MartinR Oh dear, I didn't search with the right terminology. I forgot that the RMS is also called the QM : had I remembered this , I'd have hit the dupe first up. Good spot. – Sarvesh Ravichandran Iyer Sep 13 '21 at 07:02
  • @TeresaLisbon: It suffices to copy/paste the formula into Approach0 and scroll a bit down: https://approach0.xyz/search/?q=OR%20content%3A%24%5Cfrac%7B(a_1)%5E2%2B(a_2)%5E2%2B%5Ccdots%2B(a_n)%5E2%7D%7Bn%7D%5Cge%20%5Cleft(%5Cfrac%7Ba_1%2Ba_2%2Ba_3%2B%5Ccdots%2Ba_n%7D%7Bn%7D%5Cright)%5E2%24%2C%20AND%20site%3Amath.stackexchange.com – Martin R Sep 13 '21 at 07:04
  • @MartinR Correct : I narrowed my search heavily because on every such occasion that I searched, AM-RMS was a keyword. That's why I missed the above duplicate. I'll be careful next time! – Sarvesh Ravichandran Iyer Sep 13 '21 at 07:05
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    Thankyou All of you!!!! – Damstridium Sep 13 '21 at 07:07

1 Answers1

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By C-S $$\frac{\sum\limits_{i=1}^na_i^2}{n}=\frac{\sum\limits_{i=1}^n1^2\sum\limits_{i=1}^na_i^2}{n^2}\geq\frac{\left(\sum\limits_{i=1}^na_i\right)^2}{n^2}=\left(\frac{\sum\limits_{i=1}^na_i}{n}\right)^2.$$ Another way:

It's just Jensen for the convex function $f(x)=x^2.$

Another way: $$n\sum_{i=1}^na_i^2-\left(\sum_{i=1}^na_i\right)^2=\sum_{1\leq i<j\leq n}(a_i-a_j)^2\geq0.$$

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    Come on, this has been asked and answered many times. (Even you answered it before: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2246332/42969.) – Martin R Sep 13 '21 at 06:54