$$\frac{(a_1)^2+(a_2)^2+\cdots+(a_n)^2}{n}\ge \left(\frac{a_1+a_2+a_3+\cdots+a_n}{n}\right)^2 $$ given that $(a_1), (a_2), \ldots, (a_n)$ are positive real numbers
I tried to prove this using AM GM but no luck there, so I tried to assume a function (then using derivative analysis hoping something happen but nothing).
Can anyone give me a hint????