Claim : Let $1\leq x\leq 2$ then prove or disprove we have :
$$\Gamma(x)\geq (f(1-x))^x$$
Where :
$$f(x)=\left(1+\frac{3}{4}xe^x\right)^{\frac{3}{4}(x+1)}$$
As attempt we can use Taylor's series of $\Gamma(x)$ around $2$ :
$$\Gamma(x)=1+(1-\gamma)(x-2)+\frac{1}{12}(-12\gamma+6\gamma^2+\pi^2)(x-2)^2+O((x -2)^3)$$
As other option we can take the logarithm and then use derivative but it's quite complicated .In fact it remains to find a bound for the digamma function also see this article about Digamma and gamma function inequalities
My motivation :
See Approximation of $\Big[\Gamma(1+x)\Big]^{-1}$ for $0 \leq x \leq 1$ (for the art for art's sake). .
Edit :
Second claim :
Following the advice (see ClaudeLeibovici comment)
It seems that the inequality is true as :
$$f(x)=\left(1+\sqrt{\gamma}xe^x\right)^{\sqrt{\gamma}(x+1)}$$
Where $\gamma$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant.
Question :
How to (dis)prove the second claim (the first is wrong)?