I'm working with this example that I'm trying to prove using induction:
I have two inequalities, so I have to do 2 induction proofs for each inequality seperately.
Treating the left inequality, after the base case and the induction assumption, I reach this point:
$(m+1)! > (m+1)(\frac{m}{3})^m$
Now, the question arises, is $(m+1)(\frac{m}{3})^m>(\frac{m+1}{3})^{m+1}$
I think that you can then see, after some simplications, that we get:
$3 > (1+1/m)^m$
Which then can be proved using the definition of e, I assume? Either way, I'd like to hear about your opinions, is this a good way of solving the problem using induction?
Thanks!
