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I think that the series $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{\sin(n)}{n}$$ converges conditionally, but I´m not able to prove it. Any suggestions ?

Lord_Farin
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2 Answers2

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Yes, you are correct that your series converges:

So you need to use Dirichlet's Test, which you might be somewhat familiar with, in that the alternating series test is a particular case of the Dirichlet's Test. This includes a checklist of three conditions for a series like yours, which if satisfied, reveal the series is convergent. You just need to show that your series meets those conditions, and your conclusion follows.

Added: there is a corollary to the Dirichlet's test that tells that $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n \sin n$$ converges whenever $\,\{a_n\}\,$ is a decreasing sequence that tends to zero. And indeed, in your case $$\sum_{n = 1}^\infty \frac{\sin n}{n},$$ we have that $a_n = \dfrac 1n$, which we know is a decreasing sequence which tends to zero as $n\to \infty$.

amWhy
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    I wouldn't call Dirichlet's Test the "alternating series test". This last test is a particular case of Dirichlet's. – Pedro Jun 23 '13 at 02:30
  • Yes, @Peter, I was actually returning to the question to make that distinction. Thanks! – amWhy Jun 23 '13 at 02:34
  • Wait, no. Dirichlet's Test doesn't talk about conditional convergence, just convergence. Or are you saying something else in "This includes a checklist of three conditions for a series like yours, which if satisfied, reveal the series is conditionally convergent."? – Pedro Jun 23 '13 at 02:41
  • Got your back, Jack =) – Pedro Jun 23 '13 at 03:01
  • You did not answer the question. Is the convergence conditional? You need to show that $\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{|\sin(n)|}{n}=\infty$. – Mark Viola Sep 23 '20 at 23:26
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Using Fourier series calculations it follows $$ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\sin(n x)}{n}=\frac{\pi-x}{2} $$ for every $x\in(-\pi,\pi)$. Your sum is $\frac{\pi-1}{2}$.

vesszabo
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