Re the close vote: There are only 2 questions here. 1 main question. 1 side question.
I'm trying to understand what's assumed vs proven in dihedral group. In particular I'm trying to understand dihedral group without thinking of rotations, reflections, etc.
Question 1: Is this correct, in particular where the order is part of the to-be-proven instead of part of the assumptions?
The assumptions for dihedral group (of order $2n$ but denoted $D_n$ instead of $D_{2n}$)are:
Let $n \ge 3$. Define $D_n := \langle r,s \rangle$, where $order(r)=n$ and $order(s)=2$ and $sr=r^{-1}s$. In particular, $D_n$ is completely determined by the preceding conditions. (Here I just pretend $D_n$ is some free group or whatever generated by letters $r$ and $s$ that just so happen to satisfy the 2 order equations and $sr=r^{-1}s$. I try not to think about rotations or reflections.)
The to-be-proven for dihedral group is:
Show that $D_n$ is of order 2n with $$D_n = \{1_{D_n},r,r^2, ..., r^{n-1},$$ $$s, rs, r^2s, ..., r^{n-1}s\},$$
The problem I see if you try to prove $D_n$ is of order $2n$ instead of assume it:
For finite subgroups $H$ and $K$ of group $G$, we have $cardinality(HK) = \frac{order(H)order(K)}{order(H \cap K)}$.
In (1), choose $(H,K)=(\langle r \rangle,\langle s \rangle)$. Then we have $cardinality(\langle r \rangle \langle s \rangle) = \frac{2n}{order(\langle r \rangle \cap \langle s \rangle)}$.
Long story but I was able to prove that $\langle r \rangle \cap \langle s \rangle = 1_{D_n}$ (Outline of proof: If not, then contradiction if $n$ is odd. If not and if $n$ is even, then contradiction with $order(r)=n \ge 3$.)
By (2) and (3), we have $cardinality(\langle r \rangle \langle s \rangle) = 2n$.
Question 2: Ummm...does trivial intersection of subgroups imply the subgroups' product set is a subgroup?
If not, then I'm not sure this gets me anywhere. My idea is that for Part 1 we should have defined $D_n$ as of order $2n$ and then show that it has the form $$D_n = \{1_{D_n},r,r^2, ..., r^{n-1},$$ $$s, rs, r^2s, ..., r^{n-1}s\},$$
I would do this by:
using the rule that for finite $[G:H], [G:K]$ even if $H$ and $K$ are no longer finite (they are finite still here though) we have $[G:H \cap K] = [G:H] [G:K]$ if and only if $G=HK$.
and then concluding that $D_n = \langle r \rangle \langle s \rangle$, even though I think we weren't sure as to whether or not the product set $\langle r \rangle \langle s \rangle$ was a group (until showing equality with $D_n$).