Most likely there is part of a surface $S$ which is bounded between $0\leq z\leq 1$ and $y=1$.
If the integral is on the surface $y=1$ and bounded between $0\leq z\leq 1$, then this surface is an infinite strip parallel to the $x$-axis, there is no way the integral is $1$ unless you have a bound on $x$ as well.
If it is the former case, what you wanna do is to look for a parametrization of $S$:
$$
S: \mathbf{\Phi}(u,v) = \big(x(u,v),y(u,v),z(u,v)\big),
$$
for $u\in [a,b]$, $v\in [c,d]$, then
$$
\iint_S (2-y)\,dS = \int^d_c\int^b_a \big(2-y(u,v)\big)\,\left|\frac{\partial \mathbf{\Phi}}{\partial u}\times \frac{\partial \mathbf{\Phi}}{\partial v}\right|\,dudv.
$$
EDIT: for the $z = 1$ case, you certain have:
$$
\iint_S (2-z)\,dS = \int^{1}_0\color{red}{\int^{b}_{a}} (2-z)\sqrt{1 + (z_x)^2 + (z_y)^2} \,\color{red}{dx} dy = \color{red}{\int^{b}_{a}dx}\int^{1}_0(2-1)dy.
$$
Like I said in the original answer, you have to have a bound on $x$, otherwise the surface is infinite.