We have $6$ identical white balls and $8$ identical black balls. In how many ways can we distribute the balls to $3$ children so that each gets at least one? We don't necessarily have to distribute all $14$ balls we have.
My thoughts: There are already similar questions and a generalized answer to one.
In my task, I thought of separating the problem into $2$ cases: when we distribute all $16$ balls to $3$ children and when we don't. For the latter, I thought I could bring an 'auxiliary' child that should also get at least one ball. So, let $A_i=\{\text{ distributions where }i^{\mathrm{th}}\text{ child gets no ball }\}.$ In the first case we're looking for $$\begin{aligned}\left|\bigcap_{i=1}^3 A_i^c\right|&=\left|\left(\bigcup_{i=1}^3A_i\right)^c\right|\\&=\binom{3+6-1}6\binom{3+8-1}8-\left|\bigcup_{i=1}^3 A_i\right| \quad (1)\end{aligned}$$
We can now compute $(1)$ analyzing when $i,1\le i\le 3$ children get no balls, that is $3-i$ of them do, which can be done in $\binom3k\binom{3-i+6-1}6\binom{3-i+8-1}8=\binom{3}i\binom{8-i}6\binom{10-i}6$ ways. Therefore $(1)$ equals $$\begin{aligned}\sum\limits_{i=0}^3(-1)^i \binom3i\binom{3-i+6-1}6\binom{3-i+8-1}8&=\sum\limits_{i=0}^3(-1)^i\binom{3}i\binom{8-i}6\binom{10-i}8\\&=28\cdot45-3\cdot7\cdot9+3\\&=1074\end{aligned}$$
Now, for the second case, analogously, $$\begin{aligned}\left|\bigcap_{i=1}^4A_i^c\right|&=\sum_{i=0}^4(-1)^i\binom4i\binom{9-i}6\binom{11-i}8\\&=84\cdot165-4\cdot28\cdot 45+6\cdot7\cdot 9-4\\&=9194\end{aligned}$$ so my answer is $\#=10268$
Could somebody check this solution?