I posted a question (which is now deleted) about whether the negation of the statement, $X$ is countable, is that $X$ is uncountable, i.e., there is an injection from $\mathbb{N}$ to $X$ but no bijection, needs the axiom of choice. However, it was closed for being a duplicate to the question by Sosha.
But the problem is that I fail to find a direct connection between the questions. But he closed without any comment, and I have no chance to get a further answer for it. So my question is about the rationale for how the questions are closely connected. I tried to take the contrapositive of the claim 'Every infinite set has a countably infinite subset':
If every subset of $X$ is not countably infinite, $X$ is not infinite.
Is this correct? The answers in Sosha's question state that AC is needed. OK. We know that not being infinite means $X$ is finite, i.e., there is an initial segment $I$ of $\mathbb{N}$ such that there is a bijection from $I$ onto $X$. Then, how could it answer my question? Please point out what I am missing here.