I found the following two posts to be interesting when I'm studying Sard's Theorem by myself:
On the converse of Sard's theorem
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/423475/a-modified-version-of-the-converse-to-the-sards-theorem
In particular, is there a way to prove the neat claim in the mathoverflow post (without using advanced tools like triangulation of manifolds)? The questions is restated below:
For any manifold $X$ with $\dim X \geq 1$, there always exists some map $f:X \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^2$, such that the differential $df_{x}$ is nonzero for any $x \in X$.
(Here we don't require $df_{x}$ to be nonsingular for any $x \in X$, which weakens the claim.)
I think the claim should be true after trying several examples, but I haven't found a way to prove it...thanks for any help in advance!