This thread is meant to record a question that I feel interesting during my self-study. I'm very happy to receive your suggestion and comments. See: SE blog: Answer own Question and MSE meta: Answer own Question.
Let $X, Y$ be normed spaces, $A$ a subset of $X$, $f:A\to \mathbb R$, $\Phi: A \to \mathcal P(Y)$ a multivalued mapping, and $a \in A$.
The subdifferential of $f$ at $a \in A$ is the set $$ \partial f(a)=\left\{x^* \in X^* \mid f(x) - f(a) \ge \langle x^*, x-a \rangle \text { for each } x \in A\right\}. $$ The elements of $\partial f(a)$ are called subgradients of $f$ at $a$.
The image by $\Phi$ of a subset $E$ of $A$ is defined as $\Phi(E) := \bigcup_{x \in E} \Phi(x)$. We say that $\Phi$ is single-valued and continuous at $a$ if $\Phi(a)=\left\{y\right\}$ and $$ \forall \varepsilon>0, \exists \delta>0:\left[x \in A, |x-a|<\delta \implies \Phi(x) \subset B \left(y, \varepsilon\right)\right] . $$ It can be proved that $\Phi$ is single-valued and continuous at $a$ if and only if $\Phi(a) = \{y\}$ and $[A \ni x_{n} \rightarrow a, y_n \in \Phi (x_n) \implies y_{n} \to y]$.
Theorem: Let $A$ be open and $f$ convex continuous. Then $f$ is Fréchet differentiable at $a$ if and only if $\partial f$ is single-valued and continuous at $a$.
A direct corollary is as follows:
Let $A$ be open and $f$ convex continuous. If $f$ is Fréchet differentiable at each point of $A$, then $f \in \mathcal{C}^{1}(A)$.