It's a follow up of Conjecture: $\lim\limits_{x\to 0}(x!\,x!!\,x!!!\,x!!!!\cdots )^{-1/x}\stackrel?=e$ :
A "natural" question is the following :
What is the limit of :
$$\lim_{x\to 0}\left(\frac{x!x!!!x!!!!!...}{x!!x!!!!x!!!!!!...}\right)^{-\frac{1}{x}}=?$$
For example it converge around $3/2$ but it's not exactly the value . The exact value is $e^{\gamma/(2-\gamma)}$
Now my principal interest is concentred by a another limit for example let :
$$g(x)=\left(\frac{x!x!!!x!!!!!...}{x!!x!!!!x!!!!!!...}\right)$$
Then define $a>0$ :
$$f(x)=ax$$
And :
$$h\left(x\right)=\lim_{x\to 0}\left(g\left(f\left(x\right)\right)\right)^{-\frac{1}{x}}=?$$
For $a=\pi$ the exact result is near from $3+\gamma$ see the picture below :
What is this value $(a=\pi)$?
