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Im trying to find pole or removable singularities, and also determining their order of following function:

$f(z)=z\cot(z)$

My solution so far is:

$f(z)=z\cot(z)=z\frac{\cos z}{\sin z}$

$\Rightarrow$ pole in $z=\pi k$ since $\lim_{z\rightarrow\pi k}=\frac{\pi k \cos(\pi k)}{"0"}=\infty$

From here on I don't know how to determine what order of pole it is, the solution I tried reading from the book is using the definition:

$z_0$ have a pole of order $n$ if $\lim_{z\rightarrow z_0}(z-z_0)^nf(z)\neq0$

But I find it hard to apply since the $(z-z_0)^n$ won't cancel out anything in $f(z)$ which it does when using this theorem at polynomials, therefore I don't really know what to try next, or if it might be some definition that I missed out that you're supposed to use when dealing with trigonometry.

Anyone would like to give me a hint?

Another User
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uoiu
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  • do you know that $\frac{\sin(z)}{z-\pi}$ implies an analytic non-zero function in $B(\pi, \delta)$ ? Then it's multiplicative inverse $\frac{z-\pi}{\sin(z)}$ is also analytic and non-zero in some neighborhood of $\pi$. And a product of two analytic non-zero functions (in some neighborhood of $\pi$) is also analytic and non-zero. – user8675309 Sep 29 '22 at 16:37

2 Answers2

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The Laurent series expansion of $\cot z$ (from here) is

$$ \cot z = \dfrac{1}{z}-\dfrac{z}{3}-\dfrac{z^3}{45} + \Theta(z^5) $$

For $z\in D(0, \pi)=\left\{z\in \mathbb{C} : \ |z-0| < \pi \right\}$

Then, the series of $z \cot z$ is given by

$$ f(z) = z \cdot \cot z = 1-\dfrac{z^2}{3}-\dfrac{z^4}{45} + \Theta(z^6) $$

Then, it has a removable singularity at $z=0$.

Another way to do it is by computing the limit in $\mathbb{R}$

$$ \lim_{z \to 0} z \cdot \cot z = \lim_{z \to 0} \dfrac{z \cdot \cos z}{\sin z} = \underbrace{\lim_{z \to 0} \dfrac{z}{\sin z}}_{1} \cdot \underbrace{\lim_{z \to 0} \cos z}_{1} = 1 $$

As this limit exists, and $f(z)$ can be written as a Laurent series, then the limit in $\mathbb{C}$ is the same as the limit in $\mathbb{R}$.

EDIT: For the singularities at $z = k\pi$ for $k \in \mathbb{Z} \setminus \{0\}$, the singularity is of order one:

Using the result above we have that

$$ \lim_{z \to k\pi} f(z-k\pi) = \lim_{z \to 0} f(z) = 1 $$

And

\begin{align*} \lim_{z \to k\pi} f(z) & = \lim_{z \to k\pi} z \cdot \dfrac{\cos z}{\sin z} \\ & = \lim_{z \to k\pi} \left[(z-k\pi) + k\pi\right] \dfrac{\cos z}{\sin z} \\ & = \underbrace{\lim_{z \to k\pi} \left(z-k\pi\right) \dfrac{\cos (z-k\pi)}{\sin (z-k\pi)}}_{1} + \underbrace{\lim_{z \to k\pi} k\pi \cdot \dfrac{\cos (z-k\pi)}{\sin (z-k\pi)}}_{\text{doesn't} \ \text{exist} \ \text{for} \ k\ne 0} \end{align*}

Then, computing the limit of $(z-k\pi)f(z)$ for $k\ne 0$:

$$ \begin{align*} \lim_{z \to k\pi} (z-k\pi)f(z) & = \lim_{z \to k\pi} (z-k\pi) z \cdot \dfrac{\cos z}{\sin z} \\ & = \lim_{z \to k\pi} \left[(z-k\pi)^2 + k\pi (z - k \pi)\right] \dfrac{\cos z}{\sin z} \\ & = \underbrace{\lim_{z \to k\pi} \left(z-k\pi\right)^2 \dfrac{\cos (z-k\pi)}{\sin (z-k\pi)}}_{0} + k \pi \underbrace{\lim_{z \to k\pi} (z-k\pi) \cdot \dfrac{\cos (z-k\pi)}{\sin (z-k\pi)}}_{1} \\ & = k\pi \end{align*} $$

Then $f(z)$ has one removable singularity at $z=0$ and one pole for $z=k\pi$ for $k \in \mathbb{Z} \setminus \{0\}$

Carlos Adir
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  • I respect the usage of $\Theta$ – FShrike Sep 29 '22 at 15:24
  • Okey, i understand it has a removable singularity at $z=0$, but the book also says $z=\pi k$ also is a singularity, any idea on how to get that? Because in my understanding, $\pi k$ is not a singularity when the function is expanded with Laurent, but otherwise it is, which seems strange to me. – uoiu Sep 29 '22 at 15:42
  • The fact that $z/\sin z \to 1$ is often used to determine the derivative of $\sin$ which you need when applying L'Hopital's rule. In that sense, it is a circular argument. – Gary Sep 29 '22 at 15:42
  • @zzz__ I added more information for the singularity at $z=k\pi$. When using Laurent expansion, we always have a convergence radius (in that case it's $R=\pi$) which defines a domain where the series is valid. – Carlos Adir Sep 29 '22 at 16:23
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The best way to tackle this kind of problems is by not using the exact representation of power series, but using theory. That is:

$$f(z)=\frac{z\cos z}{\sin z}=\frac{z\cos z}{\left(z-\frac{z^3}{3!}+...\right)}=\frac{z \cos z}{z\left(1-\frac{z^2}{3!}+...\right)}=\frac{\cos z}{\left(1-\frac{z^2}{3!}+...\right)}$$ and we have that the function has a removable singularity at $z=0.$ Apply the same logic and develop $\sin z$ aroun $z=k \pi, k \in \mathbb{Z}^{*}$ We get: $$f(z)=\frac{z\cos z}{(z-k\pi)+\frac{(z-k\pi)^3}{3!}+...}=\frac{z\cos z}{(z-k\pi)h(z)}$$ where $$h(z)=1-\frac{(z-k\pi)^{2}}{3!}+...$$ which is holomorphic for $z=k\pi,k\in \mathbb{Z^{*}}.$$

Now we set $$g(z)=\frac{z\cos z}{h(z)}$$ and now we get: $$f(z)=\frac{g(z)}{z-k\pi}$$ with $g$ holomorphic for $z=k\pi, k\in \mathbb{Z}^{*}$ By a well known theorem, if your function is of the form $\frac{g(z)}{(z-z_0)^n}$ and $g$ is holomorphic for $z=z_0$ then $z_0$ is a pole of order n. So we get the desired result, that is, 0 is a removable singularity, and $k\pi, k\in \mathbb{Z}^{*}$ is a pole of order 1