Some nomenclature and the universal property.
Definition: Let $S$ be a nonempty set, the free group on $S$, denoted by $F(S)$ is the collection of all reduced words on $S$. Equivalently if we define an equivalence relation $\sim$ by stating that words are equivalent if one can be reduced to the other by eliminating terms of the form $ss^{-1}$ or $s^{-1}s$ from their words then they are equivalent, we may write $F(S) = S/\sim$.
Theorem (Universal Property): Let $G$ be a group and $S$ a set. For any map $f:S \rightarrow G$ there is a unique homomorphism $\varphi:F(S) \rightarrow G$ such that $\varphi|_S = f$.
Proposition: Show that $F(S)$ is unique up to unique isomorphism.
I know that this is supposed to use the universal property but I'm not quite understanding the steps taken in this proof.
Proof: Let $F'$ be another group containing $S$ and satisfying the conclusions of the above theorem. Applying the theorem to $F(S)$ and $F'$ give a unique homomorphism $\varphi: F(S) \rightarrow F'$ and $\varphi': F' \rightarrow F(S)$ satisfying $\varphi(s) = s$ and $\varphi'(s) = s$ for all $s \in S$. Consider the composition $\varphi' \circ \varphi: F(S) \rightarrow F(S)$, this is a homomorphism as the composition of homomoorphism and must also satisfy $(\varphi' \circ \varphi)(s) = s$ for every $s \in S$. But note that by the uniqueness of the component homomorphisms, that $\varphi' \circ \varphi = id_{F(S)}$ where this denotes the identity map. Similarly $\varphi \circ \varphi' = id_{F'}$. From this we conclude that $\varphi:F(S) \rightarrow F'$ is an isomorphism and it is the unique.
- I understand that if $f:S \rightarrow F'$ is any map then the universal property gives a unique homomorphism $\varphi:F(S) \rightarrow F'$ so I see where the first homomorphism comes from, but what part of the universal property is giving us the second homomorphism $\varphi':F' \rightarrow F(S)$? The way I see it the universal property gives us a way to assert the existence of maps from $F(S)$ into some group $G$, even if we take $G = F(S)$ this would still only give us a map from $F(S) \rightarrow F(S)$ not $F' \rightarrow F(S)$ as is stated.
- Why is this called a universal property? I know that at a high level it seems to have something to do with category theory and adjoint pairs, is there any gentle explanation for what the theorem is really getting at here?
- What do we mean by unique up to unique isomorphism? I know that if two groups are isomorphic there may be many isomorphisms between them, so does this mean there is only one isomorphism between $F(S)$ and any other group it may be isomorphic to?