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The Levi-Civita connection can be written in terms of the metric as: $$ \Gamma^l_{jk}=\frac{1}{2}g^{lr}(\partial_kg_{rj}+\partial_jg_{rk}-\partial_rg_{jk}). $$ Can this relation be inverted for the metric?

dennis
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    No, for the very simple reason that two different (even non-isometric) metric can induce the same connexion: for instance, there are infinitely many non isometric flat metrics on the torus $\Bbb R^2 / \Bbb Z^2$. – Didier Feb 03 '23 at 14:41
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    @Didier So if I treat the equation above as a PDE, then it is underdetermined? – dennis Feb 03 '23 at 14:51
  • It seems that yes – Didier Feb 03 '23 at 14:53
  • @Didier Does this depend on the dimension of the space? In 3D for example, can the inversion be performed? If you see Robert Bryant's answer in https://mathoverflow.net/questions/100281/does-the-curvature-determine-the-metric he claims that the Riemann tensor determines the metric locally in 3 dimensions, which means that 2 different metrics cannot give the same Levi-Civita connection in 3D. – dennis Feb 03 '23 at 15:23
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    Robert does not say that in dimension 3 the curvature determines the metric locally. He says that if you assume that the curvature-like tensor satisfies a non degeneracy condition, then there exists a metric whose curvature is that tensor. In higher dimensions, if you assume that the curvature satisfies a certain non degeneracy condition, then the metric is uniquely determined. But if that condition does not hold, the metric need not be unique. – Deane Feb 03 '23 at 18:15
  • See my if my answer here resolves your question (I think so). In particular, one can find metrics on $R^3$ which are not locally isometric but have the same Levi-Civita connection. – Moishe Kohan Feb 04 '23 at 19:12
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  • @MoisheKohan So for each irreducible component of the Holonomy group, two metrics giving the same connection are related by a constant rescaling? – dennis Feb 04 '23 at 20:21
  • I do not understand what you wrote but if the holonomy is irreducible (which is generically true), the two metrics differ by a constant. – Moishe Kohan Feb 04 '23 at 20:40
  • @Deane Can you say what that non-degeneracy condition is? (I find it hard digging it up from the original papers). – dennis Feb 08 '23 at 15:49
  • @MoisheKohan Very interesting, thanks for this link – Didier Feb 08 '23 at 16:57
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    The nondegeneracy condition that is needed in the theorems of Bryant and DeTurck-Yang is the following: The curvature tensor, written as a $(0,4)$ tensor (i.e., all indices down) defines a quadratic form on $\Lambda^2T_xM$. The assumption we make is $\dim M = 3$ and the quadratic form is nondegenerate. – Deane Feb 10 '23 at 17:22

4 Answers4

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The equations above are actually overdetermined. There are $\frac{n(n+1)}{2}$ unknowns (components of the metric tensor) but $\frac{n^2(n+1)}{2}$ equations.

You can rewrite it as $$\partial_ig_{jk} = g_{jp}\Gamma^p_{ik} + g_{kp}\Gamma^p_{ji}. $$ Since partials commute, a solution to the system has to satisfy $$ \partial_l(g_{jp}\Gamma^p_{ik} + g_{kp}\Gamma^p_{ji}) = \partial_i(g_{jp}\Gamma^p_{jk} + g_{kp}\Gamma^p_{jl}) $$ If you carry out the differentiation, replace each $\partial_ag_{ab}$ that appears in the resulting equation by the right side of the original equation, and replace each $\partial_a\Gamma^b_{cd}$ by the formula for its formula in terms of the curvature tensor and Christoffel symbols, you get new equations for the metric tensor, Christoffel symbols, and curvature tensor. These equations have to be appended to the original set of equations. Then one has to analyze the new system.

This is done more efficiently using differential forms. We start with a connection, which can be written in local coordinates in terms of the connection $1$-forms \begin{align*} \omega^a_b &= \Gamma^a_{bc}\,dx^c. \end{align*} This has a curvature tensor, which can be written in terms of the curvature $2$-forms $$ \Omega^a_b = d\omega^a_b + \omega^a_c\wedge\omega^c_b. $$ We want to solve for $g_{ab}\,dx^a\,dx^b$ such that $$ dg_{jk} = g_{pk}\omega^p_j + g_{pj}\omega^p_k. $$ Any such solution must also satisfy \begin{align*} 0 &= d(dg_{jk}) = \cdots = g_{pk}\Omega^p_j + g_{pj}\Omega^p_k. \end{align*} At this point, the situation depends on the curvature tensor. At one extreme, if the curvature tensors all vanish, then it follows by the simplest version of the Poincar'e lemma that if you specify $g$ at a single point, there is a unique solution. Note that $g$ need not be constant, because the components of the metric tensor, even the flat one, are not constant for most coordinates.

If the curvature form is nonzero, then you have to add these new zero-order equations to the original equations. At this point, things get very complicated and depend on the rank of the curvature tensor, appropriately defined. If the rank changes, then situation becomes even more complicated. I do not know what progress has been made on this.

Another question is to prescribe the Riemann curvature tensor as a $(0,4)$-tensor $R_{abcd}$. The curvature $2$-forms can be written as $$\Omega_{ab} = \frac{1}{2}R_{abcd}\,dx^c\wedge dx^d, $$ where $\Omega_{ab} = g_{ac}\Omega^c_b.$ The equation above for the curvature forms now becomes $$\Omega_{ab} + \Omega_{ba} = 0.$$ In dimensions $4$ and higher, this is still an overdetermined systems that is hard to analyze. On the other hand, in dimension $3$, it is not hard to see that both the metric and Riemann curvature tensors have $6$ independent components. Therefore, the number of equations equals the number of unknown functions. This is the system of PDEs that Bryant studied in the real analytic case and DeTurck and I studied in the smooth case.

Deane
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  • Thanks Deane. What I don't understand is this: papers like this give the metric explicitly in terms of the curvature in normal coordinates. That means the inversion can be performed without much fuss. So why do we need advanced results like yours? – dennis Feb 16 '23 at 15:28
  • Normal coordinates tell you the curvature only at the starting point. They don’t help if you’re trying to solve an equation over a domain and not at just one point. – Deane Feb 16 '23 at 16:08
  • However, the inversion in the paper works over the entire domain in which normal coordinates are applicable – dennis Feb 16 '23 at 16:21
  • As far as I can tell, the physicists are just solving the Jacobi equation "explicitly". The following is definitely true: Suppose you start with a Riemannian metric $g$. Then in normal coordinates, you can write $g = J^TJ$, where $J$ satisfies the Jacobi equation $$ J'' + KJ = 0. $$ Here $K$ is a matrix whose components comprise a subset of the components of the Riemann tensor. So in that sense, you can "reconstruct" $g$ from the matrix $K$. – Deane Feb 17 '23 at 04:28
  • But this is different from starting with a tensor that has all the symmetries of a curvature tensor and asking whether there exists a metric whose curvature is the given tensor. That's a much harder question. – Deane Feb 17 '23 at 04:29
  • I see. It would seem to me then that if you take the physicist's inversion and then recompute the curvature, the consistency condition is that this equals the original curvature-like tensor. This condition can then be placed as a restriction on curvature-like tensors and should guarantee the existence of a metric giving rise to them. Would you agree? – dennis Feb 17 '23 at 11:49
  • At this point, it’s best if you work out the details yourself. – Deane Feb 17 '23 at 13:46
  • Am I right in saying that the non-degeneracy condition of yours is the one that guarantees that a curvature-like tensor arises from a metric? – dennis Feb 17 '23 at 14:04
  • Sorry but at this point I’m repeating myself in response to both you and others. I suggest you reread carefully what others and I have answered. But in the end you can’t take our word for it. You have to work it out carefully yourself. – Deane Feb 17 '23 at 14:26
  • That's fair :). – dennis Feb 17 '23 at 14:37
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In polar Riemann normal coordinates $\xi^i$ (such that $\xi^1$ is the radial coordinate) the metric satisfies \begin{align} g_{1i}=g^{1i}=\delta_{i1} \end{align} This implies that $$ \Gamma^{1}_{ij}=-\frac{1}{2}\partial_1 g_{ij} $$ which can be integrated out from the origin to give $g_{ij}$.

dennis
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  • Saying "normal coordinates" requires a metric given to you. Hence, your proof does not work. – Moishe Kohan Feb 06 '23 at 01:29
  • @MoisheKohan The exponential map only requires a connection though – dennis Feb 06 '23 at 09:30
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    I can only repeat my remark: Normal coordinates use more than just the exponential map. And, also, you already know that your answer cannot be right (see the comments). – Moishe Kohan Feb 06 '23 at 09:33
  • Well if I assume that the connection arises from a metric in normal coordinates, then the relation above is true. The question then is to decide, when given a connection, whether it arises from a metric in normal coordinates (i.e. you study the image of metrics in normal coordinates under $g\to\Gamma(g)$). For example, the condition $\Gamma^{i}{11}=0$ can be solved as a PDE for $g{1i}$ and assuming the initial conditions $g_{1i}(r=0)=\delta_{1i}$ gives $g_{1i}=\delta_{1i}$ everywhere. So I could say connections satisfying $\Gamma^{i}_{11}=0$ arise from metrics in normal coordinates. – dennis Feb 06 '23 at 09:47
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    Here is another suggestion: 1. Rewrite your question by spelling out what does it exactly mean, using quantifiers etc. (assuming you know what quantifiers are). 2. Try to write your answer not skipping on the notation for variables. 3. Check your writing, is it rigorous? For instance, how did you arrive to he first sentence of your answer? Is it really true? – Moishe Kohan Feb 06 '23 at 13:38
  • @Didier You only need information about the metric at the point $p$ - which is rather mild. – dennis Feb 08 '23 at 17:42
  • @dennis Knowing what is the unit sphere of the metric $g$ solely at the point $p$ is still a priori information on the metric $g$. – Didier Feb 08 '23 at 17:45
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Actually, there is a very simple idea. Fix the metric at just one point, $p$, on the manifold (this can be thought of as a 'gauge' (or choice of coordinates) if you like). To determine $<v,w>$ at an arbitrary point (for vectors $v,w$), parallel transport $v$ and $w$ to $p$ using the connection and take their inner product at $p$ using the fixed metric. This works because the metric is preserved by parallel transport.

dennis
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    This is a good but flawed idea. The issue here is that you have to know that the inner product is independent of the path used. That leads to a condition on the metric and curvature tensors. It is in fact not true that any connection is the Levi-Civita connection of a metric. – Deane Feb 08 '23 at 06:54
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In Riemann normal coordinates we have $x^i g_{ij}(x)=x^i\delta_{ij}$ (see here). In these coordinates it is easy to verify that $$ g_{jk}(x)=\delta_{jk}-\int_0^1 \alpha x^s\Gamma^{s}_{jk}(\alpha x)~d\alpha+\int_0^1 g_{js}(\alpha x)\alpha x^i\Gamma^{s}_{ik}(\alpha x)~d\alpha. $$ The metric appears linearly on the RHS in the final term. Therefore, this formula can be iterated repeatedly to obtain an expansion of $g$ in powers of $\Gamma$. As a consistency condition, one has to recompute the connection from $g$ and enforce that it be equal to the connection we started with. This places a condition on the allowed $\Gamma$ and ensures that such $\Gamma$ arise from a metric.

dennis
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  • This answer basically says that if $f$ is a smooth function, then $f(x) = f(0) + x\int_0^1 f'(tx)dt$. Note that if you know only the $\Gamma^i_{jk}$, you have no way to know the $\Gamma_{ijk}$ without knowing a priori the metric $g$. – Didier Feb 08 '23 at 17:21