I am trying to understand the marked answer in this post: Can the ideal $(X_1, X_2, \dots, X_n) $ be generated by fewer polynomials over the field $K[X_1, X_2, \dots, X_n]$?
In particular, I would like to ask for clarification of the final paragraph: Since $a_1X_1 + a_2X_2 + ... + a_nX_n \in M^2$, the coefficient of $a_1X_1 + a_2X_2 + ... + a_nX_n$ before $X_1$ equals $0$ (because every polynomial in $M^2$ has its coefficient before $X_1$ equal $0$). But the coefficient of $a_1X_1 + a_2X_2 + ... + a_nX_n$ before $X_1$ is clearly $a_1\left(0\right)$ (since the only term in the sum $a_1X_1 + a_2X_2 + ... + a_nX_n$ which can contribute to the coefficient before $X_1$ is the first term). Thus, $a_1\left(0\right) = 0$. In other words, $a_1 \in M$ (since $M$ is the set of all $P\in K\left[X_1,X_2,...,X_n\right]$ satisfying $P\left(0\right)=0$). Similarly, $a_i \in M$ for all $i\in\left\lbrace 1,2,...,n\right\rbrace$. Thus, all of $a_1$, $a_2$, ..., $a_n$ lie in $M$. This contradicts the fact that not all $a_1$, $a_2$, ..., $a_n$ lie in $M$. This contradiction finishes the proof.
I am not sure what the replier meant by : every polynomial in $M^2$ has its coefficient before $X_1$ equal $0$ and thus $a_1$ has to be 0.
Edit: I would like to request the moderators do not marked this post as a duplicate and refer that link because I am precisely asking for clarification about the proof in that post.