No, and a counterexample with $n=1$ is provided by @Thomas above. However, exploring where the standard argument fails leads to a nice result.
First note that the inverse of an isometry always exists and is also an isometry:
$$
y = Ax + b
\quad\iff\quad
x = A^{-1} (y - b) = A^{-1}y + (-A^{-1}b)
$$
since $A^{-1} \in O(n)$ and $-A^{-1}b \in \mathbb{R}^n$.
Now, to establish the reverse inclusion $S \subseteq \varphi(S)$, take an arbitrary $y \in S$ and consider $x = \varphi^{-1}(y)$. Since $y = \varphi(x)$ by construction, clearly $y \in \varphi(S)$. The problem is that there's no reason to conclude in general that $x \in \varphi(S)$. We only know that $x \in \varphi^{-1}(S)$.
On way to recover a true result is to consider instead the group of isometries generated by by $\varphi$:
$$
G = \langle \varphi \rangle
= \{\dots, \varphi^{-2}, \varphi^{-1}, \operatorname{Id}, \varphi, \varphi^{2}, \dots\}.
$$
Now it's true that if $G(S) \subseteq S$, then the reverse inclusion holds, hence $G(S) = S$, where
$$
G(S) = \{g(s) \mid g \in G,\, s \in S\}.
$$