The definition provided is that for a function $f:\mathbb{R}^n\to\mathbb{R}^m$, the derivative of $f$ at $\mathbf{x}_0\in\mathbb{R}^n$ is the matrix $L\in M_{m\times n}(\mathbb{R})$ satisfying the following property: \begin{equation*} \lim_{\mathbf{x}\to\mathbf{x}_0} \frac{\lVert{f(\mathbf{x}) - f\left(\mathbf{x}_0\right) - L \left(\mathbf{x}-\mathbf{x}_0\right)}\rVert_2}{\lVert{\mathbf{x}-\mathbf{x}_0}\rVert_2} = 0. \end{equation*}
I am then asked what happens if we (a) replace $\lVert\cdot\rVert_2$ with $\lVert\cdot\rVert_1$ in both the numerator and denominator, and (b) just in the numerator.
I am not entirely clear on what it is I should be seeing. I looked at this question, which (as far as I understood it) was stating that if the above limit exists (i.e., $f$ is differentiable with the Euclidean norm) then $f$ is also $L^1$ differentiable. But beyond that, I don't see what I should say 'happens'.
Any help would be appreciated.