Hi it's the last follow up of Show that $\left(\frac{x-1}{x+1}\right)^{\frac{1}{x}}-\cos\left(\frac{2}{x}\right)>0$ for $x\geq 4/\pi$
I wrote :
Bonus/conjecture :
Let $x\in[\pi/3,3/2]$ then define :
$$m\left(x\right)=\cos\left(\frac{2}{x}\right)-\left(\frac{x-1}{x+1}\right)^{\frac{1}{x}}$$
Then it seems $\exists a,b,c\in[-\infty,\infty]$ and $\exists \varepsilon ,0<\varepsilon$ such that :
$$b^{-x^{a}}+c-\varepsilon<\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(-1\right)^{n}m\left(x^{n}\right)<b^{-x^{a}}+c$$
It's slightly modified to give much result , currently we have nice result with :
$$a=\frac{95}{100},b=\frac{3886}{1000},c=\frac{-49}{1000}$$
Or : $$b=e^{\frac{e}{2}},a=\frac{\exp\left(2-\frac{e}{2}\right)}{2},c=-\exp\left(-\exp\left(\frac{e^{2}}{2-e+e^{2}}\right)\right)$$
Stopping the infinite series to $200$ summations .
Question :
What's the "best" (which cannot be replaced by a smaller or greater one) coefficient to have the inequality ?