1

Let $\left(X_{n}\right)_{n \geq 0}$ be a Markov chain on the state space $S=\mathbb{N}$ with transition probabilities $p_{12}=1, p_{i, i+1}=$ $i(i+2) /(i+1)^{2}$, and $p_{i 1}=1 /(i+1)^{2}, i>1$, and the remaining zero. Let $T_{i}(1)=\min \left\{n>0 \mid X_{n}=i\right\}$ be the first time in state $i$ after time zero. Show by induction that

  1. $$p_{1 j}^{(j-1)}=\frac{2}{3} \frac{j+1}{j}$$

for $j>1$ and

  1. $$P\left(T_{1}(1)=k \mid X_{0}=1\right)=\frac{2}{3} \frac{1}{k(k+1)}$$

for $ k \geq 2$.


  1. First off I am not experienced with induction proofs and I even think my base case is wrong, although most of my worries are with the hypothesis-step which will be seen. I have - at most - done two. However, for the first question it seems that the base case would be for a $j=2$ $$p_{12}^{2-1}=p_{12}^{1}=1=\frac{2}{3}\frac{2+1}{2}=1$$ from the description of the problem. I am stuck from this point for the induction step but I think it would go as such: $$p_{1,j+1}^{(j+1-1)}=p_{1,j}^{(j-1)}p_{i,i+1}=\frac{2}{3}\frac{j+1}{j}\frac{j(j+2)}{(j+1)^{2}}=\frac{2}{3}\frac{j(j+2)}{(j+1)}=\frac{2}{3}\frac{(j+1)+1}{(j+1)}$$

  1. The second problem would be for the base case $k=2$ that we can rewrite the set $$\{T_{1}(1)=k\}=\{X_0=1,X_1=2,...,X_{k-1}=k,X_0=1\}$$ So that we have \begin{align*} P(T_1(1)=2|X_0=1)&=P(\{X_0=1,X_1=2,X_0=1\}|X_0=1)\\&=\frac{2}{3}\frac{1}{2(2+1)}=\frac{2}{3}\frac{1}{6}=\frac{1}{9}\\&= p_{i1}=p_{21}=\frac{1}{(2+1)^2}=\frac{1}{9} \end{align*} from the description as we are going back to state 2 to 1. I am stuck from this point for the induction step as well. How to do the proof using induction correctly would be really appreciated.

1 Answers1

0

On Problem 1, you are correct. The assertion is claimed to hold for $j>1$, so the base case is the smallest value for $j$, namely $j=2$. In the induction step you argue that if the assertion holds for a given value of $j$, then it holds for $j+1$. In your context you must argue that if you assume $$p_{1 j}^{(j-1)}=\frac{2}{3} \frac{j+1}{j},$$ then $$p_{1 ,j+1}^{((j+1)-1)}=\frac{2}{3} \frac{(j+1)+1}{j+1},$$ which is exactly what you've done. The crucial step is observing that $p_{1,j+1}^{(j+1-1)}=p_{1,j}^{(j-1)}p_{j,j+1}$ (you have a typo in the rightmost factor), i.e., that the only way to reach state $j+1$ from state $1$ in $j$ steps is to first reach state $j$ from state $1$ in $j-1$ steps, and then go from state $j$ to state $j+1$ in the next step. The rest of the argument is substituting what you assumed is true, and doing some algebra.

On Problem 2, no induction is needed; you can use the result of Problem 1. The conditional probability $P\left(T_{1}(1)=k \mid X_{0}=1\right)$ is the probability that the chain, starting in state $1$, returns to state $1$ for the first time in $k$ steps. Since the chain can only move to the right or drop back to $1$, the desired event happens if and only if the chain progresses from state $1$ to state $k$ in $k-1$ steps, and then drops to state $1$ on the next step.

grand_chat
  • 38,951
  • thank you so much this make sense. I was told I can show it by induction which threw me off. – math math Mar 29 '23 at 18:31
  • Actually i am still a bit lost @grand_chat I get the argument you made but why does the expresssion $2/3 1/k(k+1)$ appear – math math Mar 29 '23 at 19:33
  • The probability that the chain progresses from state $1$ to state $k$ in $k-1$ steps is $p_{1,k}^{(k-1)}$. What is the probability that the the chain drops from state $k$ to state $1$ on the next step? – grand_chat Mar 29 '23 at 19:35
  • That would be $p_{i1}$ from the problem description – math math Mar 29 '23 at 19:43
  • Unless I am missunderstanding something... – math math Mar 29 '23 at 19:47
  • Right, the probability is $p_{k1}$. – grand_chat Mar 29 '23 at 19:59
  • 1
    ah, so multiply them to get the result – math math Mar 29 '23 at 20:06
  • Just as a general question. How would you actually answer the question then? Would it just be the description given without calculations? – math math Mar 29 '23 at 22:10
  • I would end my description with the conclusion "therefore $P(T_1(1)=k\mid X_0=1)=p_{1,k}^{(k-1)}p_{k,1}$" and then multiply the probabilities to get the result – grand_chat Mar 29 '23 at 22:26
  • Makes sense. What if i were to say, consider $P(T_1(1) < \infty|X_0 = 1) = 2/3$ How would i show that since it is somewhat a similar situation? I know the sum over the expression from 2) would converge to $1\cdot 2/3$ but dont know why that is relevant – math math Mar 29 '23 at 22:35
  • Sorry for the extra questions just trying to be 100% sure on whats going on – math math Mar 29 '23 at 22:44
  • Well, $P(T_1(1)<\infty\mid X_0=1)$ is equal to $\sum_k P(T_1(1)=k\mid X_0=1)$. Is the answer supposed to be $\frac23$ or $\frac13$? – grand_chat Mar 29 '23 at 22:46
  • you are correct. It is supposed to be $1/3$. That makes less sense to me, though. – math math Mar 29 '23 at 22:48
  • The summation should start at $k=2$. In that case the answer will be $\frac13$. – grand_chat Mar 29 '23 at 22:49
  • I am having a really tough time seeing 1) why we use $k=2$ 2) How the result that $\frac{1}{k(k+1)}=\frac{1}{k}-\frac{1}{k+1}$ is used here *1) Makes sense since that is the result from question 2) – math math Mar 29 '23 at 22:51
  • The expression from 2) is valid for $k\ge 2$, as indicated in your problem statement. When $k=1$ the contribution will be zero, since according to the transition probabilities, it's impossible to go from state $1$ back to state $1$ in one step. As for the hint, write $\sum\frac1{k(k+1)}=(\frac12 -\frac13)+(\frac13 -\frac14) + (\frac14-\frac15) +\cdots.$ It's a telescoping sum. – grand_chat Mar 29 '23 at 23:00
  • @grand_char I am told the sum is equal to $1$ which makes sense. However, the fact that from question 2 we have the fraction $\frac{2}{3} \frac{1}{k(k+1)}$ multiplied by the sum which is one wouldn't that leave us with $\frac{2}{3}$ and not $\frac{1}{3}$ – math math Mar 29 '23 at 23:02
  • The sum is equal to $1$ if it starts at $k=1$. Your sum starts at $k=2$. – grand_chat Mar 29 '23 at 23:12
  • okay I see so it is actually $\frac{1}{2}\frac{2}{3}=\frac{1}{3}$as the sum converges to $1/2$ – math math Mar 29 '23 at 23:15