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Every philosophical empiricist admires Humes. Some philosophical idealists like no one who admires Humes. Therefore, some philosophical idealists like no philosophical empiricists.

$\forall x(Ex \implies Hx)$

$\exists x(Ix \land \forall y(Hy \implies -Lxy))$

$\therefore$ $\exists x(Ix \land \forall y(Ey \implies -Lxy))$

is this correct?

My lack of confidence stems around the conclusion, intuitively (in my mind) it reads: There is a philosophical idealist say x with that property that if y is an arbitrary philosophical empiricists then x does not like y.

However it could also read: $\exists x(Ix \land -\forall y(Ey \implies Lxy))$

I.e. There is a philosophical idealist that does not like any philosophical empiricist

JCAL
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1 Answers1

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Your answer is correct. Unlike in our previous exercise, there is no negation ambiguity here because the word "no" is firmly referring to the count of Empiricists.

ryang
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