Need to show that
$$ \sum_{r=1}^n \operatorname{sech}(r) < \int_0^n \operatorname{sech}(x) \mathrm{d} x $$ which is done and got to
$$ \sum_{r=1}^n \operatorname{sech}(r) < \tan^{-1} \left( \sinh(n) \right) $$
Then we need to find an upper bound for the summation. and that's what I got stuck.
I can only get the "sense" that the graph of $\sinh$ goes to $\infty$, so that the $\tan^{-1}$ is kinda of at the aysmpote, which is $\pi/2$.
But is there a formal way to see this?