Let $p:(\tilde{X}, \tilde{x}) \rightarrow (X, x)$ be a covering map, let $f:(Y, y) \rightarrow (X, x)$ be a continuous map, and let $\tilde{f}:(Y, y) \rightarrow (\tilde{X}, \tilde{x})$ be a map such that $f=p\tilde{f}$. For my question, it is important that we do not assume a priori that $\tilde{f}$ is continuous.
The answer to this question suggests that $\tilde{f}$ is automatically continuous, but I have my reservations. The setup I introduced in the first paragraph is slightly different, but couldn't we follow the exact same reasoning to argue that $\tilde{f}$ is continuous? Yet, this feels wrong.
I'll explain where my doubts stem from. It is well-known that if $X, \tilde{X},$ and $Y$ are all path-connected and locally path-connected, then $f$ admits a continuous lift if and only if $f_*(\pi_1(Y, y)) \subseteq p_*(\pi_1 (\tilde{X}, \tilde{x}))$ (see Vick's Theorem 4.9 here, or Hatcher's Proposition 1.33 here). Both proofs construct a map $\tilde{f}: (Y, y) \rightarrow (\tilde{X}, \tilde{x})$ such that $f=p\tilde{f}$. Ergo, as mentioned earlier, this should be enough to conclude that $\tilde{f}$ is continuous (see the answer to this question).
Herein lies the problem: both Vick and Hatcher demonstrate the continuity of $\tilde{f}$ in a way which seems to vitally rely on the local path-connectedness of $Y$. If the fact that $f=p\tilde{f}$ is enough to conclude that $\tilde{f}$ is continuous, then why would authors as experienced as Vick and Hatcher make their proofs unnecessarily cumbersome? I am inclined to say that there is a mistake in this answer.
Are my suspicions correct? If so, what is Jason DeVito's error?