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Let $T:\underbrace{X\times X\times\dots\times X}_{n\ \text{times}}\to Y$ be a multilinear mapping that is symmetric. How can we prove that if:

$T(x,x,...,x)=0, \forall x\in X$

then $T\equiv 0$?

For $n=2$, I wrote $T(x,y)=1/4 \cdot(T(x+y,x+y)-T(x-y,x-y))$

Bogdan
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    Does this help https://math.stackexchange.com/q/481167/42969 ? See also https://math.stackexchange.com/q/2928815/42969. – Martin R Jun 16 '23 at 07:25

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