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$X \equiv 1 \pmod{20} \land X \equiv 1 \pmod{22} \iff X \equiv 1 \pmod{\operatorname{lcm}(20,22)}$

I dont understand how I would go about this proof. I am trying to use this to solve a CRT-problem with these two numbers, which are not coprime. I know, that you could split $20 = 2^2 \cdot 5$ and $22 = 2 \cdot 11$ in its prime factors. I know, that you could rewrite as $20 \mid X - 1$ and $22 \mid X - 1$. But I dont get it even if wikipedia and other articles act like you can see it directly. I appreciate every hint.

Gary
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