3

Let $g=[0,1]\rightarrow \mathbb R$ be a function such that for any sequence $(f_n)$ of left-continuous step functions on $[0,1]$ decreasing to $0$, we have that $\int_0^1 f_n(x) dg(x)$ converges to $0$.

I read that this implies that $g$ is of bounded variation. How to show that? I imagine this has something to do with Carathéodory extension theorem?

W. Volante
  • 2,244
  • 1
    Are you assuming that $g$ is continuous? Otherwise I don't know how you define $\int_0^1 f_n(x) , dg(x)$. – Julian Newman Jul 24 '23 at 23:50
  • 1
    @JulianNewman No, $g$ is not necessarily continuous. It could be right-continuous for instance. This is not a problem for the R-S integral. – W. Volante Jul 25 '23 at 00:01
  • I don't understand how you can integrate two discontinuous functions against each other; if $f_n$ shares a discontinuity point with $g$, how can you define $\int_0^1 f_n(x) , dg(x)$?? – Julian Newman Jul 25 '23 at 07:38
  • I've now provided a full answer, including a proof that $g$ needs to be continuous on $[0,1)$ in order for the hypothesis of your question to make sense (assuming you're working with R-S integration). I agree that even for $g$ not continuous, you can integrate $f_n$ against $g$ provided they share no points of discontinuity; but if $g$ is not continuous on $[0,1)$ and you're allowed to choose $f_n$ freely, then you can choose $f_n$ to share a point of discontinuity with $g$. – Julian Newman Jul 26 '23 at 08:43
  • 1
    @JulianNewman I guess I should have been clearer by writing "for all sequences $f_n$ such that the integral exists..." even though by writing the integral and saying it converges, it means it exists. Thanks for the answer, I will check it out asap. – W. Volante Jul 29 '23 at 01:56

2 Answers2

3

Preliminaries on Riemann-Stieltjes integration.

Proposition 1. If $f,g \colon [0,1] \to \mathbb{R}$ are functions sharing a point of discontinuity $x_0 \in [0,1]$, then the R-S integral $\int_0^1 f(x) \, dg(x)$ does not exist.

Therefore, for the hypothesis of the question to make sense (with respect to R-S integration), we require that $g \colon [0,1] \to \mathbb{R}$ is continuous on $[0,1)$.

Proof of Proposition 1. We split into three (overlapping) cases:

  • $x_0$ is a shared point of right-discontinuity;
  • $x_0$ is a shared point of left-discontinuity;
  • $x_0 \in (0,1)$ and $g(x)$ does not converge as $x \to x_0$.

For the first case: Let $\varepsilon_f>0$ be such that for all $x \in (x_0,1]$, the range of $f$ over $[x_0,x]$ is greater than $\varepsilon_f$. Let $x_n$ be a sequence in $(x_0,1]$ converging to $x_0$ such that for some value $\varepsilon_g>0$, every $n$ has $|g(x_n) - g(x_0)| \geq \varepsilon_g$. Let $\mathcal{P}_n$ be a sequence of partitions of mesh tending to $0$ such that for each $n$, $[x_0,x_n]$ is one of the intervals defined by the partition $\mathcal{P}_n$. Using the sequence of partitions $\mathcal{P}_n$, define two corresponding sequences of Riemann-Stieltjes sums of $f$ against $g$: for each $n$, for every partition-interval except $[x_0,x_n]$, choose the same point in that interval for both of the Riemann-Stieltjes sums; but for the interval $[x_0,x_n]$, choose the points $\zeta_n,\xi_n \in [x_0,x_n]$ for the two respective Riemann-Stieltjes sums such that $|f(\zeta_n)-f(\xi_n)| \geq \varepsilon_f$. Then for every $n$, the difference between the two Riemann-Stieltjes sums is at least $\varepsilon_{f\,} \varepsilon_g$.

The second case is proved the same way as the first case.

For the third case: Let $\varepsilon_f>0$ be such that for all $x \in [0,x_0)$ and $y \in (x_0,1]$, the range of $f$ over $[x,y]$ is greater than $\varepsilon_f$. Let $x_n$ and $y_n$ be sequences in $[0,x_0)$ and $(x_0,1]$ respectively, both converging to $x_0$, such that for some value $\varepsilon_g>0$, every $n$ has $|g(y_n)-g(x_n)| \geq \varepsilon_g$. The rest of the proof proceeds exactly as in the first case, except with $[x_n,y_n]$ in place of $[x_0,x_n]$. $\ \square$

Proposition 2. Given a left-continuous step function \begin{align*} &f \colon [0,1] \to \mathbb{R} \\ &f = c_{-1}\mathbb{1}_{\{0\}} + \sum_{i=0}^N c_i \mathbb{1}_{(a_i,\,a_{i+1}]}, \quad a_0=0, \ a_{N+1}=1, \ N \geq 0, \end{align*} and a function $g \colon [0,1] \to \mathbb{R}$ that is continuous on $[0,1)$, we have $$ \int_0^1 f(x) \, dg(x) = \sum_{i=0}^N c_i (g(a_{i+1})-g(a_i)). $$

Proof. Fix $\varepsilon>0$, and take $0<\delta<\min(a_{i+1}-a_i : i \in \{0,\ldots,N\})$ such that for all $i \in \{0,\ldots,N\}$ and $x \in [a_i-\delta,a_i+\delta] \cap [0,1]$, $$ |c_i-c_{i-1}||g(x)-g(a_i)| < \tfrac{\varepsilon}{N+1}. $$ For any partition $\mathcal{P}=\{0=a_0'< \ldots < a_{N'+1}'=1\}$ of mesh less than $\delta$, for any choice of $\xi_i \in [a_i',a_{i+1}']$ across $i \in \{0,\ldots,N'\}$, letting \begin{align*} Q^- &= \{i \in \{0,\ldots,N'\} : a_{j(i)} \in [a_i',a_{i+1}') \text{ and } \xi_i \in [a_i',a_{j(i)}] \text{ for some } j(i) \in \{0,\ldots,N\} \} \\ Q^+ &= \{i \in \{0,\ldots,N'\} : a_{j(i)} \in [a_i',a_{i+1}') \text{ and } \xi_i \in [a_{j(i)},a_{i+1}') \text{ for some } j(i) \in \{0,\ldots,N\} \} \end{align*} the Riemann-Stieltjes sum is given by $$ \text{(claimed result)} + \left( \sum_{i \in Q^-} (c_{i-1}-c_i)(g(a_{i+1}')-g(a_{j(i)})) \right) + \left( \sum_{i \in Q^+} (c_i-c_{i-1})(g(a_{j(i)})-g(a_i')) \right). $$ Hence the difference between the Riemann-Stieltjes sum and the claimed result is less than $\varepsilon$. $\ \square$


Answering the original question.

Assume that $g$ is continuous on $[0,1)$. We argue by contrapositive: Suppose $g$ does not have bounded variation; we need to construct a sequence $(f_n)$ of left-continuous step functions decreasing to $0$ such that $\int_0^1 f_n(x) \, dg(x) \not\to 0$ as $n \to \infty$.

For any partition $\mathcal{P}=\{0=a_0 < \ldots < a_{N+1} = 1\}$ with $N \geq 0$, define \begin{align*} \mathcal{P}^+(g) &= \{i \in \{0,\ldots,N\} : g(a_{i+1}) \geq g(a_i) \} \\ \mathcal{P}^-(g) &= \{i \in \{0,\ldots,N\} : g(a_{i+1}) < g(a_i) \} = \{0,\ldots,N\} \setminus \mathcal{P}^+(g) \\ \mathcal{V}^+(\mathcal{P},g) &= \sum_{i \in \mathcal{P}^+(g)} g(a_{i+1}) - g(a_i) \\ \mathcal{V}^-(\mathcal{P},g) &= \sum_{i \in \mathcal{P}^-(g)} g(a_i) - g(a_{i+1}) \\ \mathcal{V}^\vee(\mathcal{P},g) &= \max( \, \mathcal{V}^+(\mathcal{P},g) \, , \, \mathcal{V}^-(\mathcal{P},g) \,) \\ \mathcal{V}^\wedge(\mathcal{P},g) &= \min( \, \mathcal{V}^+(\mathcal{P},g) \, , \, \mathcal{V}^-(\mathcal{P},g) \,) \\ \mathcal{P}^\vee(g) &= \Bigg\{ \begin{array}{c l} \mathcal{P}^+(g) & \text{if } \mathcal{V}^+(\mathcal{P},g) \geq \mathcal{V}^-(\mathcal{P},g) \\ \mathcal{P}^-(g) & \text{if } \mathcal{V}^+(\mathcal{P},g) < \mathcal{V}^-(\mathcal{P},g) \end{array} \\ \mathcal{P}^\wedge(g) &= \{0,\ldots,N\} \setminus \mathcal{P}^\vee(g) \end{align*}

Since $g$ does not have bounded variation, one can find partitions $\mathcal{P}$ for which $\mathcal{V}^\vee(\mathcal{P},g)$ is arbitrarily large. [I'll leave this as an exercise :)] Consequently, I can recursively construct a sequence of partitions $\mathcal{P}_n$ and sequence of positive numbers $\alpha_n>0$ as follows:

  • take $\mathcal{P}_1$ to be an arbitrary partition with $\mathcal{V}^\vee(\mathcal{P}_1,g) \geq 1$, and take $\alpha_1 = \max(\mathcal{V}^\vee(\mathcal{P}_1,g),2\mathcal{V}^\wedge(\mathcal{P}_1,g))$;
  • given $\mathcal{P}_n$ and $\alpha_n$ for some $n \geq 1$, take $\mathcal{P}_{n+1}$ such that $\mathcal{V}^\vee(\mathcal{P}_{n+1},g) \geq \max(n+1,\alpha_n)$, and take $\alpha_{n+1} = \max(\,\mathcal{V}^\vee(\mathcal{P}_{n+1},g)\, , \, 2\mathcal{V}^\wedge(\mathcal{P}_{n+1},g) \,)$.

Now writing $\mathcal{P}_n$ as $$ \mathcal{P}_n =\{0=a_0^{(n)} < \ldots < a_{N_n+1}^{(n)} = 1\}, $$ define $f_n$ by $$ f_n = \left( \frac{1}{\mathcal{V}^\vee(\mathcal{P}_n,g)} \sum_{i \in \mathcal{P}_n^\vee(g)} \mathbb{1}_{(a_i^{(n)},\,a_{i+1}^{(n)}]} \right) + \left( \frac{1}{\alpha_n} \sum_{i \in \mathcal{P}_n^\wedge(g)} \mathbb{1}_{(a_i^{(n)},\,a_{i+1}^{(n)}]} \right). $$

Claim: $f_n$ is decreasing to $0$, and $\int_0^1 f_n(x) \, dg(x) \geq \frac{1}{2}$ for all $n \geq 1$.

Proof of Claim.

  • For the fact that $f_n \to 0$: We have $f_n \geq 0$. We also have that $\alpha_n \geq \mathcal{V}^\vee(\mathcal{P}_n,g) \geq n$, and so $f_n \leq \frac{1}{n}$.
  • For the fact that $f_n$ is decreasing: By construction, $f_n(0)=0$ for all $n$, and $f_n(x)$ is equal to either $\frac{1}{\mathcal{V}^\vee(\mathcal{P}_n,g)}$ or $\frac{1}{\alpha_n}$ for each $x \in (0,1]$. So then, the fact that $$ \alpha_{n+1} \geq \mathcal{V}^\vee(\mathcal{P}_{n+1},g) \geq \alpha_n \geq \mathcal{V}^\vee(\mathcal{P}_n,g) $$ gives the result.
  • For the fact that $\int_0^1 f_n(x) \, dg(x) \geq \frac{1}{2}$: By Proposition 2, we have that $\int_0^1 f_n(x) \, dg(x)$ is equal to $$ \underbrace{\left( \sum_{i \in \mathcal{P}_n^\vee(g)} \frac{1}{\mathcal{V}^\vee(\mathcal{P}_n,g)} (g(a_{i+1}^{(n)})-g(a_i^{(n)})) \right)}_{=: \, A_n} + \underbrace{\left( \sum_{i \in \mathcal{P}_n^\wedge(g)} \frac{1}{\alpha_n} (g(a_{i+1}^{(n)})-g(a_i^{(n)})) \right)}_{=: \, B_n}. $$ Now $$ A_n = \frac{1}{\mathcal{V}^\vee(\mathcal{P}_n,g)} \sum_{i \in \mathcal{P}_n^\vee(g)} g(a_{i+1}^{(n)})-g(a_i^{(n)}) = \frac{1}{\mathcal{V}^\vee(\mathcal{P}_n,g)} \mathcal{V}^\vee(\mathcal{P}_n,g) = 1 $$ and $$ B_n = \frac{1}{\alpha_n} \sum_{i \in \mathcal{P}_n^\wedge(g)} g(a_{i+1}^{(n)})-g(a_i^{(n)}) = -\frac{1}{\alpha_n} \mathcal{V}^\wedge(\mathcal{P}_n,g) \geq -\tfrac{1}{2}, $$ and so $A_n + B_n \geq \frac{1}{2}$.
  • +1. I think that this Q&A my be of some interest to you: if both $f$ and $g$ are discontinuous functions of bounded variation, then the value of the integral calculated by the tools depends on the values of $f$ at its points of discontinuity, and thus is completely unpredictable if these values are not specified. – Daniele Tampieri Jul 26 '23 at 13:47
  • +1 great answer for the continuous case. Any idea how to adapt the argument for my initial question where $g$ is not necessarily continuous? I don't think it would cost much, I believe one just needs to be careful when choosing to partition so that $f_n$ is integrable against $g$. Thoughts? – W. Volante Jul 30 '23 at 17:21
  • @W.Volante Thanks; well, I’ve already answered the original question if one interprets the condition as, “for all f_n with the specified properties, the integral exists and tends to zero”. But I see that in some of your comments, you’ve asked for the version: “for all f_n with both the specified properties and the existence of the integral, the integral tends to zero”. In this case, the statement is false: take $g$ to be a function that is discontinuous everywhere (e.g. indicator function of the rationals), then the only admissible f_n are constants c_n, so the integral is c_n(g(1)-g(0)). – Julian Newman Jul 30 '23 at 20:31
  • @W.Volante I guess the interesting case is when $g$ has finitely many discontinuities. I can think about that. – Julian Newman Jul 30 '23 at 20:40
  • @JulianNewman I feel there is a misunderstanding about what it means for $\int f_n dg$ to exist, so to be clear: $g$ must be at least right (semi)-continuous and $(f_n) \subset L^1(g)$. So the case where $g$ is discontinuous everywhere is already excluded (and btw, you're mistaken about the integral with Dirichlet's function as an integrator, it simply does not exist). For simplicity of the argument, let's say that $g$ is càdlàg, even if it does not need to be, just so we don't deal with semi-continuity, or asymptotes. This does not necessarily mean that $g$ has finitely many discontinuities. – W. Volante Jul 30 '23 at 23:39
  • @W.Volante Okay, I can’t work out how you intended your question to be interpreted (since you’ve now indicated that Dirichlet’s function is even more trivially a counterexample than I had thought), but yes, let’s work with cadlag. Also, I cannot work out what your definition of Stieltjes integration is; I’m working with Riemann-Stieltjes integration as defined, e.g., on the Wikipedia page. It sounds like you want something closer to Lebesgue-Stieltjes integration, but I think this definition usually presupposes that $g$ is already of bounded variation. – Julian Newman Jul 31 '23 at 14:17
  • @W.Volante Anyway, with $g$ cadlag and working with the standard definition of R-S integration, the key question for determining whether my argument extends is: Can a cadlag function $g$ of unbounded variation have that when the supremum in the definition of total variation is restricted to partitions whose endpoints (except 1) are continuity points of $g$, this supremum becomes finite? My intuition is that this weird phenomenon cannot happen and so my argument extends. But I really don’t know. – Julian Newman Jul 31 '23 at 14:26
  • @W.Volante As established in the answer to my question https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4746153/, it is indeed the case that the total variation of a càdlàg function can be obtained as a supremum just over partitions whose endpoints besides $1$ are continuity points. Hence my argument extends to càdlàg $g$ by choosing the partitions $\mathcal{P}_n$ not to include any discontinuity points of $g$ besides $1$. – Julian Newman Aug 02 '23 at 00:25
0

Let $\mathcal{S}$ be the set of functions of the following type $$f(x) = \sum_{k=1}^{n}{ c_k 1_{(t_{k-1},t_k]} }$$ where $0 = t_0 < t_1 < \dots < t_n = 1$ and all the $c_k$ are either $+1$ or $-1$

Claim 1 : $$V(g) = \sup_{ f \in \mathcal{S}}{\int_{0}^{1}{f(x)dg(x)}}$$

Then if by contradicition $V(g) = \infty$ you find a sequence $\{ f_n \} \subset \mathcal{S} $ such that $$\int_{0}^{1}{ f_n dg(x) } > n^2$$

Now just take $$F_n := \frac{1}{n}f_n$$clearly the $F_n$ are simple, left continuos and $F_n \to 0$ but $$\int_{0}^{1}{ F_n(x)dg(x) } = \frac{1}{n}\int_{0}^{1}{ f_n(x)dg(x) } \geq n \not\to 0$$

The proof is complete, now I prove the Claim.

The claim follows from the equality

$$\sum_{k=1}^{n}{ |g(t_k) - g(t_{k-1}+)| } = \int_{0}^{1}{f(x)dg(x)}$$

Where $f(x)$ is defined so that if $t_{k-1} < x \leq t_{k}$ one has $f(x) = +1$ when $g(t_k) - g(t_{k-1} +) \geq 0$ and $f(x) = -1$ when $g(t_k) - g(t_{k-1}) < 0$.

Paul
  • 1,314
  • I fail to see why the last part of your answer proves the claim. Could you add a small explanation? – W. Volante Jun 30 '23 at 14:00
  • The idea is that you take the sup both sides of the equality with respect to $f \in \mathcal{S}$, on the LHS you get $V(g)$ except for the fact that there is $g(t_{k-1}+)$ Instead of $g(t_{k-1})$. I want to fix this issue but first I need to understand this : if $f(x) = 1_{(a,b]}(x)$ how do you define $\int_{0}^{1}{f(x)dg(x)}$? Is it $g(b) - g(a)$ or is it $g(b) - \lim_{x \to a^+}{g(x)}$? In this case, what about if $\lim_{x \to a^{+}}{g(x)}$ doesn't exists? – Paul Jul 02 '23 at 01:04
  • I would say it would be $g(b)- \lim_{x\rightarrow a^+} g(x)$. If the limit does not exists, the integral with respect to $g$ does not exist. – W. Volante Jul 04 '23 at 15:13