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While preparing for an exam, I am trying to prove the identity below. I searched for similar questions but only found Combinatorial proof of ${n\choose p}{n\choose q}=\sum_{k=0}^n {n \choose k}{n-k \choose p-k}{n-k \choose q-k}$ (Someone mentioned that this identity may be not true).


Question

Let $p,q ,n\in \mathbb{N}$ s.t $p,q \le n$

$$ \sum_{k=0}^{\min\{p,q\}} \binom{n}{k} \binom{n-k}{p-k} \binom{n-p}{q-k} = \binom{n}{p} \binom{n}{q}$$


My attempt

  • First of all, I want to find a combinatorial proof since it's important for me to understand the "combinatorial story" behind it.

  • I draw this in order to understand maybe what's the "story". But I'm stuck understanding what are the purple elements and the whole connection to the LHS (Note that the index k "runs" over vaules from $0$ to $\min{(p,q)}$). enter image description here

I would appreciate if someone here can try to continue my solution or suggest an alternative solution (if you do please explain each step the motivation behind it).

RobPratt
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Lior
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  • Hint: given $n$ people, form two not necessarily disjoint subcommittees therein, one of size $p$, the other size $q$. You can do this by choosing which $k$ people are in both, for $0\le k\le\min{p,,q}$. – J.G. Jun 28 '23 at 11:09
  • I think, but would have to check again, that the english translation of these countings is that we are trying to count different 2 subsets of a set of $n$ elements, where the first one has $p$ elements and the second one has $q$ elements. Then the LHS (in your image) is clear what it does... For the second, RHS, we observe that the intersection of these 2 sets has at most min$(p,q)$ elements. So we count by that. Then we complete the set of $p$ elements with the second binomial coefficient, and then we complete the set of $q$ elements with the last binomial coefficient. Does this help? – donaastor Jun 28 '23 at 11:10
  • So, your attempt is good. You should notice next that green contour + orange contour has $p$ elements, and then that the green contour + (missing) magenta contour has $q$ elements. – donaastor Jun 28 '23 at 11:13

4 Answers4

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Disclaimer

Just a summary of your own attempt, comment by J.G., and answer by Robert Wegner

Set Up

There are $n$ people, choose $p$ to play football and choose $q$ to play volleyball. Some people may play both of them.

Right Hand Side

  • Choose $p$ out of $n$ to play football
  • Choose $q$ out of $n$ to play volleyball

The total number of possibilities is given by the right hand side.

Left Hand Side

  • Choose $k\in\left[0,\min{\left(p,q\right)}\right]$ to play both
  • From remaining $n-k$, choose $p-k$ to play only football
  • From remaining $n-p$, choose $q-k$ to play only volleyball

Summing up for all allowed value of $k$, the total number of possibilities is then given by the LHS.

Conclusion

Since both count the same object, RHS must equal LHS.

acat3
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Since OP is also asking for alternate solutions here is a variation based upon hypergeometric functions. We use the rising factorial notation $(a)_{k}:=a(a+1)\cdots(a+k-1)$.

We obtain \begin{align*} \color{blue}{\sum_{k=0}^{\min\{p,q\}}}&\color{blue}{\underbrace{\binom{n}{k}\binom{n-k}{p-k}\binom{n-p}{q-k}}_{=:t_k}}\\ &=\sum_{k=0}^{\min\{p,q\}}t_k=t_0\sum_{k=0}^{\min\{p,q\}}\prod_{j=0}^{k-1}\frac{t_{j+1}}{t_j}\\ &=\binom{n}{p}\binom{n-p}{q}\sum_{k=0}^{\min\{p,q\}}\prod_{j=0}^{k-1}\binom{n}{j+1}\binom{n-j-1}{p-j-1}\binom{n-p}{q-j-1}\\ &\qquad\qquad\qquad\qquad\qquad\qquad\cdot\binom{n}{j}^{-1}\binom{n-j}{p-j}^{-1}\binom{n-p}{q-j}^{-1}\\ &=\binom{n}{p}\binom{n-p}{q}\sum_{k=0}^{\min\{p,q\}}\prod_{j=0}^{k-1}\frac{(j-p)(j-q)}{(j+1)(j+n-p-q+1)}\\ &=\binom{n}{p}\binom{n-p}{q}\sum_{k=0}^{\min\{p,q\}}\frac{(-p)_k(-q)_k}{(n-p-q+1)_k}\,\frac{1}{k!}\\ &=\binom{n}{p}\binom{n-p}{q}{_2F_1}\left(-p,-q;n-p-q+1;1\right)\tag{1}\\ &=\binom{n}{p}\binom{n-p}{q}\frac{\Gamma(n-p-q+1)\Gamma(n+1)}{\Gamma(n-q+1)\Gamma(n-p+1)}\tag{2}\\ &=\binom{n}{p}\binom{n-p}{q}\frac{(n-p-q)!n!}{(n-q)!(n-p)!}\\ &\,\,\color{blue}{=\binom{n}{p}\binom{n}{q}} \end{align*} and the claim follows.

Comment:

  • In (1) we write the sum as hypergeometric $_2F_1$ function evaluated at $z=1$ .

  • In (2) we recall a theorem from C. F. Gauss [1812] (see e.g. Theorem 2.2.2 in Special Functions by G.E. Andrews, R. Askey and R. Roy) which is \begin{align*} {_2F_1}(a,b;c;1)=\frac{\Gamma(c)\Gamma(c-a-b)}{\Gamma(c-a)\Gamma(c-b)}\tag{3} \end{align*} if $\Re(c-a-b)>0$. We derive from (1) $\Re\left((n-p-q+1)-(-p)-(-q)\right)=n+1>0$ and we can apply (3).

Markus Scheuer
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First, observe that $$\sum_{k=0}^{\min(p,q)} \begin{pmatrix} n \\ k \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} n - k \\ p - k \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} n - p \\ q - k \end{pmatrix} = \sum_{k=0}^{\min(p,q)} \begin{pmatrix} n \\ k \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} n - k \\ p - k \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} n - k - (p - k) \\ q - k \end{pmatrix}$$ This means that there is a clear pattern. You could imagine that you have $n$ labeled balls in a box and three buckets: A, B, and C. You take $k$ balls and put them into bucket A. There are $\begin{pmatrix} n \\ k \end{pmatrix}$ ways to do this. Then you take $p - k$ balls from the box and put them in Bucket B. There are $\begin{pmatrix} n - k \\ p - k \end{pmatrix}$ ways to do this. Lastly, you take $q - k$ balls from the box and put them in Bucket C. There are $\begin{pmatrix} n - k - (p - k) \\ q - k \end{pmatrix}$ ways to do this. The total number of ways to execute this procedure is given by the sum on the left-hand side.

Now let's consider a different procedure. Suppose all balls are back in the box and we have stickers with the labels "B" and "C". We choose $p$ balls and label them with the sticker "B". There are $\begin{pmatrix} n \\ p \end{pmatrix}$ ways to do this. Now we choose $q$ balls and label them with the sticker "C". Note that a ball can possibly have two stickers on it, "B" and "C"! There are $\begin{pmatrix} n \\ q \end{pmatrix}$ ways to do this. The total number of ways to apply these stickers is equal to the right-hand side of the equation.

To see that the two values are equal, we now put all the balls with only sticker "B" in bucket B and all the balls with only sticker C in bucket C. We are left with a number of balls that have both stickers, "B" and "C". We put these balls in bucket A. Suppose that $k$ balls ended up in bucket A. Then there are $p - k$ balls in bucket B and $q - k$ balls in bucket C. We see that there is a one-to-one correspondence between the ways of putting the balls into the buckets A, B, and C, and the ways of applying the stickers "B" and "C" to the balls.

As to your diagram, consider drawing a third disjoint blob in the diagram on the right in purple color. Then on the left-hand side, you can create a third region which is the intersection between red and blue, thereby obtaining three disjoint regions.

Robert Wegner
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    Quite simply, n - p is equal to n - k - (p - k). The point of this rewriting is that we first took k balls from n, leaving n - k balls, and now we take an additional p - k balls from those n - k, leaving n - k - (p - k) = n - p balls. – Robert Wegner Jun 28 '23 at 11:16
  • I like your answer. Thank you! I prefer to think about it as in my diagram. Because I feel like every question is about putting balls into buckets.
    For example, $a^b$ counts putting b labeled balls in a buckets.

    But your story is also about putting balls into buckets. Yet, you get a diffrenent expression than $a^b$. To deal with it - I draw a different diagrams for different expressions. Do you understand my confusion? if you do, can you try to help me understand the difference?

    – Lior Jun 28 '23 at 11:49
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    You have $a$ labeled balls in a box and make a selection of $b$ of them according to one of the following methods:
    1. You pick a ball, write down its label and put it back into the box. You repeat $b$ times. In front of you is a vector $(x_1, x_2, ..., x_b)$ of labels. There are $a^b$ such vectors.
    2. You pick a ball, and write down its label but do not put it back into the box. After $b$ times, in front of you is a vector $(x_1, ..., x_b)$ of unique labels. There are $a * (a - 1) * ... * (a - b + 1) = a! / (a - b)!$ such vectors.
    – Robert Wegner Jun 28 '23 at 12:20
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  • You pick a ball and write down its label into a set. You do not put it back into the box. After $b$ steps, in front of you is a set ${x_1, ..., x_b}$ of labels. There are $a * (a - 1) * ... * (a - b + 1) / b! = a \text{ choose } b$ such sets. You divide by $b!$ because the order doesn't matter.
  • – Robert Wegner Jun 28 '23 at 12:24