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$\def\Si{\operatorname{Si}}$

The converse Ramanujan master theorem finds Taylor series coefficients. The goal of our question is applying it on $h(x)=\cases{f^{-1}(x),x\ge1\\ 0,0\le x<1}$:

where $f(x)=x\csc(x)$. The Mellin transform of $h(x)$ is:

$$\operatorname M_s(h(t))=\int_0^\infty t^{s-1}h(t)dt=\int_1^\infty t^{s-1}h(t)dt=\int_0^\pi t f(t)^{s-1}df(t)$$

Integrating by parts, letting $s=n\in\Bbb N$ using Approximating function of the integral $\dfrac{\sin(x)^k}{x^k}$ gives the $\Si(x)$ function $$\operatorname M_n(h(t))=-\frac1n\int_0^\pi\left(\frac{\sin(x)}x\right)^{-n}dx= \frac{1}{(-n-1)!}\sum\limits_{k=0}^{\left\lfloor \frac{-n-1}2\right\rfloor}\frac{(-1)^{k+1}}n{\binom {-n} k}\left(\frac{-n}{2}-k\right)^{-n-1}\text{Si}((-n-2k)\pi)=\Gamma(n)a_{-n}$$

so possibly:

$$h(t)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{a_n(-x)^n}{n!},a_n= \frac{1}{\color{red}{\Gamma(-n)}(n-1)!}\sum\limits_{k=0}^ {\left\lfloor \frac{n-1}2\right\rfloor}(-1)^k{\binom n k}\left(\frac{n}{2}-k\right)^{n-1}\text{Si}((n-2k)\pi) \tag 1$$

Unfortunately, $\Gamma(-n)$ complicates convergence. However, as @Tom Copeland mentioned here $\Gamma(-n)$ in $\displaystyle f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \int_0^\infty t^{-n-1} f(t)dt\frac{(-x)^n}{n!\Gamma(-n)}$ making the sum terms $0$:

Roughly you are neglecting that $1/t$ tends to infinity as $t$ tends to $0$. Review the use of delta functions and the Gelfand-Shilov rep. Other more elementary intros to generalized functions and regularization of integrals are useful (Kanwal maybe)

there is a possibility of fixing $(1)$’s convergence and removing the $\Gamma(-n)$ by regularization/use of generalized functions, but how?

Тyma Gaidash
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  • $\frac{1}{\Gamma(-n)}=0$ for $n=0,1,2,\ldots$ making $a_n=0$. – Gary Aug 04 '23 at 02:44
  • @Gary This was addressed in the block quoted comment starting with “Roughly, …”. Is there any way to regularize, etc, the sum? – Тyma Gaidash Aug 04 '23 at 11:44
  • I'm a bit confused by this question. You are trying to obtain the Taylor series coefficients of $h(x)$ at $0$, but it seems these coefficients should all be zero since $h(x)$ is the zero function there. Since $h(x)$ is a piecewise function, you won't get a Taylor series that captures both parts. Are you perhaps trying to find a Taylor series for the $h(x)>1$ instead? – Caleb Briggs Aug 04 '23 at 17:44
  • @CalebBriggs Yes, an explicit expansion for $h(x)$ for $x>1$.The piecewise function was for making the function continuous on $[0,\infty)$ so the Ramanujan master theorem was maybe applicable. An equivalent problem is expanding $h(1/x),0\le x\le 1$, inverting $\frac{\sin(x)}x$, about $x=0$ using the same method. What ideas do you have? – Тyma Gaidash Aug 04 '23 at 18:45

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