Let $f:\mathbb{Z}^+\times\mathbb{Z}^+\to\mathbb{Z}^+$ be defined by $f(i,j)=\frac{(i+j-2)(i+j-1)}{2}+i$.
How can I prove that this function is bijective? I tried to find an inverse by playing around with the equation $y=\frac{(i+j-2)(i+j-1)}{2}+i$ and trying to solve for $i$ and $j$, but I couldn't. In general, is it possible to solve for two variables if you have just one equation? When is it not possible?