In another post, the top answer says:
If there are sets at all, the axiom of subsets tells us that there is an empty set: If $x$ is a set, then $\{ y∈x ∣ y≠y \}$ is a set, and is empty, since there are no elements $y$ of $x$ for which $y≠y$. The axiom of extensionality then tells us that there is only one such empty set.”
I am having trouble understanding the move from 'there exists a set $x$' to '$\{ y∈x ∣ y≠y \}$ is a set'. Why is it the case that there is a subset of $x$, $y$, such that $y$ is distinct from itself?
I may be missing something basic here.