1

Suppose I have a random variable $X$ and I know its PDF $p_X$. The goal is to find the corresponding $p_Z$ of the random variable $Z=f(X)$. For now, $f$ is any Borel measurable function. I'm trying to obtain and add the correct hypotheses on $f$ as I go along.

By definition $p_Z=\frac{\mathrm{d}F_Z}{\mathrm{d}z}$, where $F_Z$ is the CDF of $Z$. Given a probability space $(\Omega, \mathfrak{F}, \mathrm{P})$, $F_Z$ is such that $F_Z(A\subseteq\Omega):=\mathrm{P}[Z\in A]$ for each subset $A$.

Now, here comes the first step. $$ \mathrm{P}[Z\in A]=\mathrm{P}[X\in f^{-1}(A)] $$

We hence have to require that $f(x)$ is invertible for every $x$ whose image falls in $A$.

$$\tag{1} p_Z(z)=\frac{\mathrm{d}F_Z}{\mathrm{d}z}= \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}z}\int_{f^{-1}(A)}p_X(x)\,\mathrm{d}x = \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}z}\int_{f^{-1}(z_1)}^{f^{-1}(z_2)}p_X(x)\,\mathrm{d}x $$

where I have assumed that $A$ is an interval of the form $[z_1,z_2]$ (otherwise I don't know how to go on). Using Leibniz integral rule, the previous is equal to: \begin{equation} \tag{2} p_X(f^{-1}(z_2)){\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}z}}f^{-1}(z)\bigg\vert_{z_2}-p_X(f^{-1}(z_1)){\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}z}}f^{-1}(z)\bigg\vert_{z_1} \end{equation} now we have the additional requirement for $f$ to be differentiable, since $$ \frac{\mathrm{d}f^{-1}}{\mathrm{d}z}=\frac{1}{{\mathrm{d}}f/{\mathrm{d}x}}. $$ In theory, I should also require that the derivative is non-zero, but I think this is automatically true since every continuous (continuity implied by differentiability) and injective function (injective because it's invertible) is strictly monotone.

So, differentiability and injectivity. Are there other conditions? Can we generalize formula $(2)$ when $A$ is not simply an interval?

haiku
  • 31
  • 1
    For the equation about $P[Z\in A]$ you do not need that $f$ is invertible. The preimage of $A$ is defined regardless of any conditions about $f,.$ When you write out $p_Z(z)$ the last term looks strange. Where is the $z$ in the integral w.r.t. which you take the derivative? When you clarify this the next few questions will probably answer themselves. – Kurt G. Oct 02 '23 at 09:36
  • @KurtG. If $x=f^{-1}(z)$, then the last term of $(1)$ should really be seen as $$ \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}z}\int_{f^{-1}(z_1)}^{f^{-1}(z_2)}(p_X\circ f^{-1})(z)\frac{\mathrm{d}f^{-1}}{\mathrm{d}z}\mathrm{d}z$$ I'm not sure though if $\frac{\mathrm{d}f^{-1}}{\mathrm{d}z}$ or $\left|\frac{\mathrm{d}f^{-1}}{\mathrm{d}z}\right|$ is to be used. Maybe the latter. – haiku Oct 02 '23 at 10:06
  • There is a lot of confusion with your notation. The $z$-derivative of $\displaystyle\int_{f^{-1}(\color{red}{z_1})}^{f^{-1}(\color{red}{z_2})}$ is *zero* because nothing depends on $z,.$ What is $\left|\frac{\mathrm{d}f^{-1}}{\mathrm{d}z}\right|$ to you ? Hint: study the duplicate question. – Kurt G. Oct 02 '23 at 10:49
  • Isn't it the simplest case of the Jacobian determinant (like that in the answer you linked)? – haiku Oct 02 '23 at 13:09

0 Answers0