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How can one prove that $a*c \equiv b*c \:\: mod(n*c)$ equals $ a \equiv b \: \: mod(n)$, the only thing I know thus far is that factor cancellation is only allowed if gcd(a,n)=1 i.e when a and n are relatively prime. I thought that using a Direct Proof would be the easiest way so we assume our first congruence and than try to get to our second congruence via arithmetic manipulations.

Anqa012
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Okay so after thinking a little bit more about the problem my answer to the question would be as follows:

We can write $$a*c \equiv b*c \: \: mod(c*n)$$ as $$(a*c-b*c)=k*(n*c), k \in \mathbb Z$$

So now we have a ordinary equation where we can just cancel out the factor c via division on the left and right hand side and end up with $$k*n = a-b$$ which in turn is equal to $$ a\equiv b \: \: mod(n)$$ and this basically concludes the proof because one has shown that the first congruence equation is equal to the second. Would this be somewhat acceptable as prove?

Anqa012
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