I am a novice in the field of category theory, and one of the things I struggle to wrap my head around is the notion of universal properties. Precisely, I struggle to understand why universal properties all seem to be stated in terms of the existence of a unique morphism between objects, instead of just at least one morphism.
Now, I understand that the very idea of a universal property is to define an object up to isomorphism via a certain property. In a sense, this property becomes the definition of the object. But more specifically, universal properties define objects up to unique isomorphism. What I don't understand is why we want unique isomorphisms between these objects, instead of at least one isomorphism. What would be lost by not having a unique isomorphism between objects that satisfy a property?
Note that I understand how requiring a unique isomorphism means that objects that satisfy the same universal property are isomorphic. But is it necessary?
I've read this question whose top rated answer explains the terminology, but doesn't really explain why uniqueness up to unique isomorphism is useful or interesting or desirable. There is also this question that is very similar to mine, and whose answer tries to justify why the unicity of the isomorphism matters, but I'm not really convinced by the explanation. Again, wouldn't simply an isomorphism uniquely characterise the object in question?
Edit 1:
It has been pointed out to me in the comments that universal properties state that there exists a unique morphism that makes a certain diagram commute, and that it is the uniqueness of this morphism that is important. Not so much the fact that it gives unique isomorphisms between satisfying objects.
Thinking about it more, I realised that if the morphism given by a universal property wasn't unique, then the objects that satisfy that property wouldn't necessarily be isomorphic to one another. Is this the reason why the uniqueness of that morphism is important?