Given a function $f\in L^p$ with $1<p<\infty$ and $\|f\|_p=1$ is it true that there is a unique function $g \in L^q$ with $\|g\|_q=1$ such that $\int fg =1$? This is over an arbitrary measure space.
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Generaly true in any Banach space. This is a consequence of Banach Alaoglu Theorem. – geetha290krm Nov 14 '23 at 23:19
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Yes, because $L^q$, which is the dual of $L^p$, is strictly convex for $1<q<\infty$ (actually, it’s uniformly convex). Then you can conclude by the statement contained in this post.
P.s. Moreover, $g=\operatorname{sgn}(f)|f|^{p-1}$ a.e. (you can verify that the $L^q$ norm is $1$ and $\int fg=1$).
Lorenzo Pompili
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