Given $E$ and $F$ real vector spaces, I would like to prove that if $\varphi:E^n\to F$ is a $n$-linear symmetric mapping such that $$\varphi\cdot h^{(n)}=0_F, \text{ for every } h\in E,$$ then $$\varphi(x_1,\dots, x_n)=0_F, \text{ for every } x_1,\dots, x_n\in E,$$ where $h^{(n)}:=(\underbrace{h,\dots, h}_{n \text{ times}})$ and $\varphi\cdot x:=\varphi(x)$, for each $x\in E^n$.
I've tried to prove that by fixing $v_1,\dots, v_n\in E$ and considering the mapping $P:\mathbb{R}^n\to F$ given by $$P(x_1,\dots, x_n):=\varphi\cdot (x_1v_1+\dots+x_nv_n)^{(n)}, \text{ for all } x_1,\dots, x_n\in \mathbb{R},$$ and noticing that $P(x)=0_F$, for all $x\in \mathbb{R}^n$. I've tried to calculate the coefficient of $x_1\dots x_n$, but all I got was $x_1\cdot \dots \cdot x_n \cdot n! \varphi(v_1,\dots, v_n)$. How may I proceed to prove that it is, in fact, zero?