Given $(V, \|\cdot\|)$ a real normed linear space, suppose it has the property that given any closed convex set $K$, there exists a $u_0 \in K$ such that $\|u_0\| \leq \|u\|$ for any $u \in K$. Does it imply the space is complete? What if we have a real inner product space instead? Does it imply our space is actually a Hilbert Space? The proof in establishing the existence of the minimizers in Hilbert space uses completeness at a crucial step but what I would like to know if that is actually necessary in general.
Edit. I think the following argument can show that if $(V,\langle \cdot , \cdot \rangle)$ is an inner product space, then existence of these minimizers implies that the space is complete: Given any closed subspace $M \subset V$, We can still define the orthogonal projection operator $P: V \rightarrow M$ such that $P(x)$ is the closest point to $x$ in that subspace. This will tell us that the decomposition of $V$ into $M \bigoplus M^{\perp}$ still goes through, and thus Riesz Representation Theorem still holds for any such space. Thus as $V^* \cong V$, the space is complete.
Does there exist anything for general Banach Spaces? (Perhaps it is necessary to add the existence of a unique minimizer)