I formulated this conjecture after reading this related question.
Let $\mathcal{P}(n) = \{P_1(n), P_2(n), \ldots \}$ be the set of all integer partitions of a positive integer $n$, and $p(n)=\vert \mathcal{P}(n) \vert$ the number of those partitions. Note that the $P_k(n)$ are multisets, i.e. elements can be repeated.
Let $f(P_k(n))$ be the number of distinct permutations of the elements of $P_k(n)$.
Is it true that for $n \ge 2$:
$$\sum_{k=1}^{p(n)} f(P_k(n))(-1)^{\vert P_k(n) \vert} = 0 \space ?$$
I verified it for $2 \le n \le 6$, while it evaluates to $-1$ for $n = 1$.
EDIT 1
Searching the OEIS and precisely the comments section of OEIS A111786 it seems this is a well known fact. I haven't found the proof yet...
EDIT 2
For example, for $n=4$, $\mathcal{P}(4) = \{\{4\},\{3,1\},\{2,2\},\{2,1,1\},\{1,1,1,1\}\}$, $f(\{4\})(-1)=-1$, $f(\{3,1\})(-1)^2=2$, $f(\{2,2\})(-1)^2=1$, $f(\{2,1,1\})(-1)^3=-3$, $f(\{1,1,1,1\})(-1)^4=1$.