I was trying to evaluate the definite integral
$$\int_0^{\frac{1}{2}} \frac{1}{x} \cdot \ln(1+x) \cdot \ln\left(\frac{1}{x} -1\right)\,\mathrm{d}x$$
On WolframAlpha, I found out that this converges to 0.651114
Which seems to be pretty close (and possibly equal) to $\frac{13}{24}\cdot\zeta(3)$
Where $\zeta(3)$ is the value of the Riemann Zeta function $\zeta(n)$ at $\ n = 3$
Is this true? How can we prove that they are equal?
I tried substituting $\ x = e^{-t}$ and the integral became
$$\ I = \int_0^{\ln2}\ln(1+e^{-t}) \cdot \ln\left(\frac{e^{-t}}{1-e^{-t}}\right)\,\mathrm{d}t$$
How do I proceed further?
Any help is appreciated. Thanks for reading.