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Are there integers $a,c,d,e,f$ such that $$a^2 + \left(\dfrac{c}{d}\right)^2= \left(\dfrac{e}{f}\right)^2,\quad\gcd(c,d)=1=\gcd(e,f),\quad f\neq 1\neq d, ~~~ f\neq d $$ As for a contradiction we would have $$a^2 = \left(\dfrac{e}{f}-\dfrac{c}{d}\right) \left(\dfrac{e}{f}+\dfrac{c}{d}\right) = \left(\dfrac{ed-cf}{fd}\right)\left(\dfrac{ed+cf}{fd}\right).$$ Thus $(fd)^2\mid\biggl((ed-cf)(ed+cf)\biggr)$ which happens if $fd\mid (ed-cf)$ or $fd\mid (ed+cf)$. We know $fd$ cannot divide $ed$ because $$fd\cdot k = ed \Rightarrow f \cdot k = e\Rightarrow k = \dfrac{e}{f} \Rightarrow \gcd(e,f)>1$$ But if $fd$ cant divide $ed$ does that mean $fd$ cannot divide the sum or difference $ed+cf$ or $ed-cf$. Instantly, we should say $a^2$ is not an integer which is a contradiction.

Bill Dubuque
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2 Answers2

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Not possible. Suppose $f \ne d$ and $f \ne -d$. Say $f$ does not divide $d$. From $$ a^2 + \left(\dfrac{c}{d}\right)^2= \left(\dfrac{e}{f}\right)^2 $$ we get $$ (ad)^2 + c^2= \left(\dfrac{ed}{f}\right)^2 $$ an integer equal to a non-integer. Similarly for the case $d$ does not divide $f$.

GEdgar
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Ignoring the trivial equations $0^2 + 0^2 = 0^2$ , $y^2 + 0 = y^2$ and $0^2 + x^2 = x^2$, we have that $a,c,d,e,f \neq 0$.

So we want to solve

$$ a^2 + (c/d)^2 = (e/f)^2 $$

by multiplying both sides by $d^2$ or by $f^2$ we arrive at the two equations :

$$ (ad)^2 + c^2 = (ed/f)^2 $$

and

$$(af)^2 + (cf/d)^2 = e^2$$

We must conclude that since $\gcd(e,f) = 1$ in the first equation and the LHS is an integer , we get that $f|d$. Likewise for the second equation by $\gcd(c,d)=1$ we get that $d|f$.

However if $f|d$ and $d|f$ and $f,d$ are nonzero, we get either $f=g$ or a contradiction.

But you wanted $f \neq d$ so your equation has no nontrivial solution.

mick
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  • your proof is more accurate (complete) but it was derived from GEdgar answer. – Roy Burson Dec 23 '23 at 21:38
  • @Life_is_pie I did not even read his answer until 5 min ago. I do not need help with trivial number theory. Avoiding divisibility in easy number theory is almost impossible, unless you want an unnessary long or complicated proof. I guess I am a bit offended by " derived ' and you just wanted a reason/motivation to accept his answer instead of mine. That's ok, you can accept his answer. He was first and correct, so its ok. – mick Dec 23 '23 at 22:02
  • I would also like to modify question and look for solutions when $d\vert a$. I will ask this is next question because as a consequence the number $n = 1/2 a \dfrac{c}{d}$ would be congruent. For this to happen we need to look for solutions when $d\vert a$. – Roy Burson Dec 23 '23 at 22:04
  • As for your variant of the question, that can be resolved in a similar way. – mick Dec 23 '23 at 22:07
  • I would like to add that when I answered you did not accept any answers, so I felt a more clear answer was needed. – mick Dec 23 '23 at 22:09
  • at the time I was still gathering my thoughts on why his is correct. It's because he said "similarly" which indicates he was aware of both equations even though he didn't write it. Which would lead us to the same conclusion – Roy Burson Dec 23 '23 at 22:13
  • I prefer my own answer ;) But ok :) @Life_is_pie – mick Dec 23 '23 at 22:16
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    I do as well as I said yours is more accurate but It is more appropriate to give him the points. I just posted next question here https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4832727/are-there-any-semi-congruent-numbers – Roy Burson Dec 23 '23 at 22:25
  • Please strive not to post more (dupe) answers to dupes of FAQs. This is enforced site policy, see here. – Bill Dubuque Dec 23 '23 at 22:50